Question

15. is the inverse of a function always a function? Explain.
i know the answer is no but i dont know how to explain it

Answer 1

@mathstudent55

Answer 2

@TheSmartOne

Answer 3

@Goku-Kai

Answer 4

@dan815

Answer 5

@StudyGurl14

Answer 6

When you take the inverse of a function, you are switching the x and y values. For a function to be a function, one x-value has to correspond with exactly one y-value. You can't have one input with two outputs. However, you CAN have one output (y-value) result from two or more different inputs (x-values). If you have a function like that, and then take the inverse, it will result in inputs with more than one output.
For example: