show that \(\dfrac{n!}{(n-r)!r!}\) is integer , w/o saying "is an integer because this represents the "count" of number of ways of choosing "r" things from "n" things"
@ganeshie8 ........
lol this looks like an insult to my previous proof haha!
na :|
i really likes it xD
lets start with the inequality of greatest integer function since i know you're excited about legendre formula :) for any two real numbers \(a, b\) we have : \[\lfloor a+b \rfloor \ge \lfloor a\rfloor + \lfloor b \rfloor \]
aha
for example \[\lfloor 2.6+0.6 \rfloor = 3 \ge \lfloor 2.6\rfloor + \lfloor 0.6 \rfloor = 2\]
ok i agree
next consider \(r + (n-r)\) : \[\left\lfloor\dfrac{r+(n-r)}{p^k} \right\rfloor \ge \left\lfloor\dfrac{r}{p^k}\right\rfloor + \left\lfloor\dfrac{n-r}{p^k}\right\rfloor \] where \(p\) is a prime factor of \(r!(n-r)!\)
which is same as \[\left\lfloor\dfrac{n}{p^k} \right\rfloor \ge \left\lfloor\dfrac{r}{p^k}\right\rfloor + \left\lfloor\dfrac{n-r}{p^k}\right\rfloor \]
wid me so far ?
yess
recall legendre formula left hand represents the highest exponent of prime \(p\) in \(n!\) , yes ?
could u type it ? i dont memorize it xD
wait yes i agree
Are you and @ganeshie8 going to keep doing this or something ?
yes yes
let me ask you a side question whats the highest exponent of "7" in 20! ?
[20/7]=2
OK i see you still remember ;)
yeah like went through my memory xD but 7 seems easy
we simply interpret the previous inequality for number of primes in the factoriol and conclude our proof
let me do it in one reply
k
@Conqueror ??
\[\left\lfloor\dfrac{n}{p^k} \right\rfloor \ge \left\lfloor\dfrac{r}{p^k}\right\rfloor + \left\lfloor\dfrac{n-r}{p^k}\right\rfloor \] Left hand side gives the highest exponent of \(p\) in \(n!\) Right hand side gives the highest expone of \(p\) in \(r!(n-r)!\) So the inequality says that the exponent of \(p\) in \(n!\) is greater than the exponent of \(p\) in \(r!(n-r)!\) this is true for all \(p\) consequently \( r!(n-r)! ~| ~n!\)
\(\blacksquare \)
wow ! never seen this proof before ! loved it
:)
i was thinking of this \(\Large \text{ you can see that }\\ \Large \frac{n!}{(n-r)!}=n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\\ \Large \text{ so we need to show }\\\Large r! |n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\\ \Large \text{W.L.O.G assume } n=r \mod r \text{ thus}\\ \Large n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv r(r-1)(r-2)\dots 2.1 \mod r\\ \Large n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv r! \mod r\\ \Large n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)=mr+r!\ \Large \)
hehe but i wasn't able to end it xD
we can use this fact : any set of "r" consecutive integers form a complete set of residues "mod r"
yes this is what i have done
so one of them will be congruent to 0 mod r making the entire product vanish
as simple as that !
what do you mean, you're not able to conclude ?
vanish w.r to r
from here :- \(n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv r! \mod r\\ \Large \)
Consider the product of \(r\) consecutive integers starting from \(x\) : \[x(x+1)(x+2)\cdots (x+r-1)\]
haha ok ok
they give you complete set of residues mod r in some order : \[0\cdot 1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdots (r-1) \pmod r\]
ok
that means \(r\) divides the product in question, yes ?
ok i agree huh
but you also have (r-1) consecutive integers wid the same reasoning r-1 also divides the product in question, yes ?
ok got it
consider 6 consecutive integers : `3,4,5,6,7,8`
just see that you also have 5 consecutive integers in them so, 5 divides their product
similarly other integers less than 5 also divide that product
In general : product of "r" consecutive integers is divisible by r!
once you know congruences, proofs become short and simple :)
\( n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv r! \mod r\equiv 0 \mod r\\ n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv (r-1)!\mod r-1 \equiv 0 \mod r-1\\ n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv (r-2)! \mod r-2\equiv 0 \mod r-2\\ n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv (r-3)! \mod r-3\equiv 0 \mod r-3\\ \vdots n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv (3)! \mod 3\equiv 0 \mod 3\\ n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv (2)! \mod 2\equiv 0 \mod 2\\ n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv (1)! \mod 1\equiv 0 \mod 1\\ n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\dots (n-r+1)\equiv 0 \mod r!\\ \)
thats right! but why not keep the proof simple
hehe :P
statement : \(r!~ | ~ n(n+1)(n+2)\cdots (n-r-1)\) proof : Clearly the terms in the product represent \(r\) consecutive integers. So they form a complete set of residues in \(\mod r\). That means one of the term in that product is congruent to \(0 \mod r\) making the product divisible by \(r\). Inductively we conclude that the product is divisible by \(r!\) by noticing that the terms in product can form a complete set of resdidues for any integer < \(r\).
see if that looks good :)
it is :) btw this is the only proof i have :|
you also have that combinatoric proof right ?
combinatoric ?
\(\large \binom{n}{r}\) is an integer, so \(r! ~|~ n(n-1)(n-2)\cdots (n-r-1)\)
thats the combinatoric proof ^
just one line
haha :P
ok , i'll force myself to agree :P
lol almost all combinatoric proofs involve using this binomial coefiicient being integer stuff..
it is easy to see that the binomial coefficient is integer if you believe in binomial theorem
I believe that binomial coefficient is triangle integer number then believe in binomial theorem
not all binomial coefficients are triangular numbers
triangular numbers are of form n(n+1)/2
ugh ok
so you can represent them using binomial coefficient : \[t_n = \binom{n+1}{2}\]
got it
ok too much number theory for one day, go prepare for ur exams :)
i need to understand Hensel's lemma more maybe you can help me after ur exams
for what u need it ?
hehe yeah after exams i'll write NT manual solution for burton
i thought hensel's lemma allows you to solve conruences of type \(r^3+r \equiv a \pmod{p^2}\) ?
yeah it do
okay after ur exams teach me then
k
i found a funny fact
?`
we know that \(\binom{n}{k}=\binom{n-1}{k-1}+\binom{n-1}{k}\)
pascal's rule
keep simplifying it until we got it w.r to \(\binom{m_i }{k-k}=1 ,~~~ s.t ~~~ m_i\le n\)
\(\binom{n}{k} =\) sum of integer combination
you will reach the first row of paslacl's triangle
yes yes and simplify more :)
\[ \sum \limits_{k=0}^n\ \binom{n}{k} = 2^n\] you're not refering to this, right ?
nope
can u explain more, i don't get it
i'll show u
ok
\(\begin{align*} \binom{n}{k}&= \binom{n-1}{k}+\binom{n-1}{k-1} \\ &=\binom{n-2}{k-2} +2\binom{n-2}{k-1}+\binom{n-2}{k}\\ &=\binom{n-3}{k-3} +3\binom{n-3}{k-2} +3\binom{n-3}{k-1}+\binom{n-3}{k} \\ &= \binom{n-4}{k-4} +4\binom{n-4}{k-3}+6\binom{n-4}{k-2} +4\binom{n-4}{k-1}+\binom{n-4}{k} \\ &= \dots \text{ so far until we reach all term have } \binom{m_i}{k-k} \text { for some } m_i\le n \end{align*}\)
so we would have something like this :-
I know this property, it is called horshow identity or something xD it is easy to see this in pascal triangle
its called "hockey stick pattern", not horse shoe haha
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