This one looks weird: \[f(x)=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^{2n}+1} \\ \text{ where is } f \text{ continuous ?}\]
i wanna cry ='(
lol I'm thinking about it too...
If this helps or if this is a hint to anyone, this comes after sequences and series discussion in the james stewart 6e calculus book.
i felt series involved hmm
ok can i switch the limit to 0 ?
i guess if we do a substitution
hehe
lol but you wanted to say f(x)=(1-1)/(1+1)=0
not sure if this helps but we can write as \[f(x)=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1-\frac{1}{x^{2n}}}{1+\frac{1}{x^{2n}}}\]
\(\lim_{n \to 0}\frac{x^{\frac{1}{2n}}-1}{x^{\frac{1}{2n}}+1} \)
no we cant do what u posted :O
can we ? :O
ok my brain is out of service literally , ill wait until u reveal some solution :)
I wonder if we should just consider some random numbers... \[x=-1 \\ f(-1)=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{(-1)^n-1}{(-1)^n+1}\] so this limit wouldn't exist so it isn't defined at x=-1
but f(-1/2)=-1
interesting ,,,,
i cheated
so f(x)=-1 for when -1<x<1
i don't know how to show that though yet and also i guess wolfram considered all cases when finding limits and the other limits didn't exist
oh :O
ok then i'll work on this ltr
if n goes to infinity then (x^2n) goes to 0 if -1<x<1
\[\lim \limits_{n\to \infty} x^n = \infty , ~0\]
\[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}x^{2n} =0 \\ \text{ for } x \in (-1,1) \\ f(x)=\frac{0-1}{0+1}=-1\] for x=-1 to x=1
does that mean the function is continuous everywhere except -1 and 1 ? idk, a real analyst will have a more rigorous argument for proving continuity @eliassaab @ikram002p @zzr0ck3r
\(\frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^{2n}+1} = 1-\frac{2}{x^{2n}+1} \)
im here -.-
\(\Large \frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^{2n}+1} = 1-\frac{2}{x^{2n}+1} \) ok this should help
and if we consider anything outside..maybe we can try to use l'hospital I guess and see what we come up with \so x>1... \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{x^n \ln(x)-0}{x^n \ln(x)+0}=1 , x>0\] wait this isn't right is it?
\( \lim 1-\frac{2}{x^{2n}+1} =1-2=-1 \) done yollaaa
i mean x>1 *
oops forgot the 2
@ganeshie8 no its cont at 1,-1
\[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{2x^{2n} \ln(x)-0}{2x^{2n} \ln(x)+0}=1 , x>1 \]
im here :(
that sounds cool @myininaya i forgot that its a limit
Oh so it is continuous everywhere ?
so I wonder if it is continuous on (-1,1) U (1,inf)
well we can't do that if x<-1
because of the ln part
so we would have to consider something else for x<-1 I guess
x^2n>0 ppl so its cont !
2n even power :O
im i missing something ?
so what its cont :O whats that cool program xD
so the function was continuous everywhere i feel like i have been tricked
i stil think it can get discont at x = -1 and 1, not sure hmm
we need to consider n->infinity
its even power xD
If you divide top and bottom by \(x^{-2n}\), It's just a matter of when that is not continuous, I think.
check demo. only
Since \(1^{\infty}\) is an indeterminate, form, I am guessing it has issues at \(x=\pm 1\).
ok i'll tell u something it would be continues and smooth but derivative does not exist , happy now ?
show me analysis argument marki
like this |dw:1421294926275:dw|
im too tired
it has contour track :'(
it is just "drawn" continuously without lifting the hand but everyone knows a square wave has jump discontinuity at transitions
with no branch cut
stupid question how do you find f'(x)?
like can you ignore the limit part for the time being and just use quotient rule?
\[ \lim_{x\to 1^+}f(x) = 1 \neq -1 = \lim_{x\to 1^{-}}f(x) \]
and then reinsert limit part
wio did u look at the animation ? how can u say that without fixing n value ?
\[f(x)=\lim_{n \rightarrow a}g(x,n) \\ \text{ \in general what is the rule here for finding derivative } \]
I'm not sure why I want to find the derivative lol
Well \(x\to 1^+\) would mean that we treat limit as if \(x>1\) and \(x^{-2n}\to 0\): \[ \lim_{n\to \infty }\frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^{2n}+1} = \lim_{n\to \infty }\frac{1-x^{-2n}}{1+x^{-2n}} =1 \]
Is that not good enough?
and so since f(1)=0 then it is not continuous at x=1
I don't think you can say \(f(1)=0\).
\(\color{blue}{\text{Originally Posted by}}\) @myininaya \[f(x)=\lim_{n \rightarrow a}g(x,n) \\ \text{ \in general what is the rule here for finding derivative } \] \(\color{blue}{\text{End of Quote}}\) In this case, you differentiate with respect to \(n\).
the sun is rising here finally XD
\[f(1)=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{(1)^{2n}-1}{(1)^{2n}+1}=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1-1}{1+1}=\frac{0}{2}=0\] why can't we do this?
Oh, I guess you can do that.
yes yes '!
and you showed \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 1^+}f(x)=1 \neq f(1)\]
so this was a double limit question
my problem is with the smoothly of this function , its so smooth xD
like x=1 function
well in @ganeshie8 picture when the n's were getting larger the turned at x=1 and x=-1 were getting sharper
the turns*
somehow when u convert smooth dot derivable functions to complex they also continues
so for large n it is not smooth there at x=1 or x=-1
lets try this definition of continuity |dw:1421296136818:dw| no branches cuts ...
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