Question

P -> Q is equivalent to ~P or Q. Does the law change if there is quantifiers? for example: ∀x (P(x) -> Q(x)) is equivalent to ∀x (~P(x) or Q(x)) or is it equivalent to ∃x (~P(x) or Q(x)) ????

Answer 1

O_O :O
is that really upside dow A or just my eyes ..........:O ??

Answer 2

yes it's really an upside down A

Answer 3

Yes, they're equivalent still

Answer 4

@wio which one though?

Answer 5

The first one

Answer 6

this one? ∀x (~P(x) or Q(x))

Answer 7

Yes

Answer 8

ok, thanks ;)