If \(p\) is a prime and \(\gcd(k, p-1)=1\), prove that the integers \[\large 1^k,2^k,3^k,\ldots,(p-1)^k \] form a complete set of residues modulo \(p\)
I have googled but found nothing useful, running low on ideas at the moment... appreciate any kind of favors :)
basically we need to show that the integers \[\large 1^k,2^k,3^k,\ldots,(p-1)^k\] are congruent in some order to the integers \[1,2,3,\ldots, (p-1)\] in modulo \(p\)
Well I don't know what a residue is, it's like some kind of complex analysis thing that's also a number theory thing... But I might be able to help anyways, here goes. If p wasn't prime, p-1 would still not share any divisors with p so it seems important or related. Specifically gcd(p, p-1)=1 is what I'm saying.
Ok so are you saying that gcd(5,7-1)=1 so then this means we can write 1^6, 2^6,... 5^6 and that set will be all the natural numbers less than 6?
Yes two consecutive integers are always relatively prime we're given that the exponent \(k\) is relatively prime to \(p-1\)
small correction : `Ok so are you saying that gcd(5,7-1)=1 so then this means we can write 1^5, 2^5,... 6^5 and that set will be all the natural numbers less than 7?`
Ahh I see, less than the prime itself ok.
Exactly! 1^5 = 1 mod 7 2^5 = 4 mod 7 3^5 = 5 mod 7 4^5 = 2 mod 7 5^5 = 3 mod 7 6^5 = 6 mod 7 we get the complete set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} as residues as desired
yo wassup does anyone know matlab? kind of stuck :(...ooh number theory
recently i remember seeing @dan815 @UnkleRhaukus @Zarkon using matlab..
damnnn... I need to modify a code but I'm stuck
I'm just trying to break it to see what happens when p-1 has a factor in common. I'm still playing around with it, kind of a weird problem to get my head around.
Interesting... specifically when \(k\) is a multiple of \(p-1\) we are gettomg all \(1\)'s as residues : ``` 1^6 = 1 mod 7 2^6 = 1 mod 7 3^6 = 1 mod 7 4^6 = 1 mod 7 5^6 = 1 mod 7 6^6 = 1 mod 7 ```
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=Table%5Bn%5E%286n%29+mod+7%2C+%7Bn%2C+1%2C6%7D%5D
Another interesting pattern, gcd(4, 7-1) = 2 ``` 1^4 = 1 2^4 = 2 3^4 = 4 4^4 = 4 5^4 = 2 6^4 = 1 ``` mod 7 of course. =P
That looks neat xD may be we can conjecture : \(x^k\equiv a \pmod{p} \) has exactly \(d\) solutions where \(d = \gcd(k, p-1)\)
need to modify a bit : If \(x^k\equiv a \pmod{p} \) has a solution, then it has exactly \(d\) solutions, where \(d = \gcd(k, p-1)\)
for exampile : in your table \(x^4\equiv 2 \pmod{7}\) has \(2\) solutions : \(x=2, 5\) because \(\gcd(4, 7-1)=2\)
So looks like we can generalize the actual problem statement
i feel that can be complicated to prove compared to our original problem..
I found this sort of thing that's true I think for greater than 2 or 3, might be helpful or related to think about: \[\Large a^n \equiv a \mod (a(a-1))\] Maybe the more general is easier, I don't know I really don't know much about how to think with these things haha.
I'm looking through my abstract algebra book for ideas lol
Why do we need a prime in the first place?
I guess it makes it so that the only possible prime p-1 can be is 2, and maybe that is a special case or something so it works by chance.
I'm not so sure.. maybe the author wants us to use Fermat's little thm.. but i don't see how it helps here..
earlier you're showing \(a^n-a\) is divisible by \(a(a-1)\) ? this looks neat, im still trying the proof xD
\(a^n-a = a(a^{n-1}-1) = a(a-1)(stuff)\) nice :)
Yeah, I feel like I can't stop from seeing the geometric series every single day, and that was it lol.
\[\large \frac{a}{a} \frac{a^{n-1}-1}{a-1} = a^n+a^{n-1}+ \cdots + a+1 \equiv 1 \mod a(a-1)\]
i like this proof more xD
Honestly I had no idea there was this connection, I just figured this random thing out and never proved it but knew it had to be true cause of how I discovered it. But then what you said made me see it immediately... But it's almost so good looking that I'm not even sure if it's true lol.
That last step seems wrong after I put it, I just sort of assumed that all the powers of a all divided out leaving just 1. But that seems wrong since it should be 0 I think not 1.
At any rate, the proof by induction is simple, start here and then you can see how you could do this n times, kind of like multiplying an idempotent matrix by itself or I guess more closely related to boolean algebra. \[\large a^2 -a \equiv 0 \mod a(a-1)\] Hmm.
your previous proof works with a slight modification : \[\large \frac{a^{n}-1}{a-1} = a^{n-1}+ \cdots + a+1 \equiv 1 \pmod {a}\] multiply \(a-1\) both sides \[\large a^{n}-1 \equiv a-1 \pmod {a(a-1)}\] \[\large a^{n} \equiv a \pmod {a(a-1)}\] :D
I think I just repeated your argument in trying to find a better way lol. \[\large a(a^{n-1}-1) \frac{a(a-1)}{a(a-1)} \equiv a(a-1) (stuff)\]
lets pretend we dont know how to factor x^n-1 :P
Yeah we need to use fermats little theorem here I am feeling it
then we can prove the same using divisibility arguments alone like this : \[a^n-a\equiv 0 \pmod {a}\tag{1}\] \[a^n-a\equiv (a-1+1)^n-(a-1+1) \equiv (0+1)^n - (0+1) \equiv 0 \pmod {a-1}\tag{2}\] the result follows from above two congruences
since a| (a^n-a) and (a-1) | (a^n-a) we have a(a-1) | (a^n-a)
Oh so in the binomial expansion of (a-1) with 1 to the power n, all the terms go away except 1? Is that how you're thinking of it or is what you're saying kind of different somehow, I just have trouble with these mod things.
Yes... we're just expanding ( `a-1` + 1)^n using binomial thm..
Also, we can simply replace `a-1` by `0` because `a-1 = 0 (mod a-1)`
( `a-1` + 1)^n = ( `0` +1)^n (mod `a-1`)
Oh that's pretty simple I like that better.
Are you familiar with Euler's Theorem? Apparently that's what it's called lol...
a and m are coprime, then \[\large a^{\phi(m)} \equiv 1 \mod m\] It's a generalization of Fermat's theorem basically where \[\large \phi(m)\] is the totient function, which apparently gives the number of coprime numbers less than the number. So for primes \[\large \phi(p)=p-1\] which is how we recover Fermat's little theorem out of it. I think we can play with this to prove your thing.
EUler's Theorem :D
Yes when m is a prime, euler = fermat
gawd I love calculating phi, d, sigma, and meu that was the shiz.
lol i love sigma and tau functions xD
oh quick question before I go to sleep is there anything like this: \[\Large \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n x^n \mod 2n\] Basically a way to cut out all even numbers from a generating series or something like this as an application.
Wait that doesn't make sense, I'm going to bed, also what's sigma tau and mu functions?
I'll try this again in my evening... thanks Kai :) \(\large \tau(n)\) : number of positive divisors of \(n\) \(\large \sigma(n)\) : sum of those divisors
If it helps think of it asinfinite zeta also I remember I have proven this with nt concepts will try and send snap
Okk I remember it from abstract algebra as well
Homomorphism to something
Anything to do with binomial theorem?
What about Wilson's theorem could we use that?
\[\large (p-1)! \equiv -1 \mod p\] Seems related
p is prime , let p have a primitive root of \(r\le p-1~and ~gcd(r,p)=1\) then \(1^k,...(p-1)^k\) its congruent to \(r,r^2,r^3,.....,r^{p-1}\) in some order
are congruent in modulo p * QED
or if i wanna use ind , let k be the smallest that satisfies \(a\equiv r^k \mod p ,~gcd(r,p)=1\) in other way let k be the index of a relative to r \(ind ~a^k=k ~ind ~a \) hmm directly , right ?
Ahh that looks neat xD i completely forgot about primitive roots here
hehe im not perfectly convincing myself
Here I tried to complete your proof : Let \(r\) be a primitive root of \(p\), then the given integers are congruent in some order to below integers \[\large r^{1k},r^{2k},\ldots,r^{(p-1)k}\] We conclude the proof by showing that none of these powers are congruent to each other. If any of these powers are congruent to each other, for \(i\ne j\): \[r^{ik}\equiv r^{jk}\pmod{p} \] dividing \(r^{jk}\) both sides \[r^{ik-jk}\equiv 1\pmod{p} \] that yields \(ik-jk \equiv 0 \pmod{p-1}\) dividing \(k\) both sides gives \(i-j \equiv 0 \pmod{p-1}\) which is a contradiction. That means the given set of integers(\(1^k,2^k, \ldots,(p-1)^k\)) are incongrunt to each other. Since there are exactly \(p-1\) incongruent integers, these must be congruent to \(1,2,3,\ldots,(p-1)\) in some order. \(\blacksquare\)
yes exactly i missed out some steps :P
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