Are a rational expression and its simplified forms equivalent?
i was hoping to get a bettr answer because that was confusing lol
The problem is that the question is a little ambiguous. Here are 3 other answers, as you can see they are a little different. https://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20130124071641AAcuTAX http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/5108a7aae4b070d859be5e81 http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/5112a79be4b07c1a5a646faa I'll try to give my own answer then. The resource http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/Alg/RationalExpressions.aspx states that: "A rational expression is nothing more than a fraction in which the numerator and/or the denominator are polynomials." which means it would be of the sort $$ \frac{(x+3)(x-1)}{x-1} $$ As the resource shows, this can be simplified in similar way to rational numbers. we can cancel common factors of the numerator and denominator. For example: $$ \frac{16}{6} = \frac{8\cdot\cancel2}{3\cdot\cancel2} = \frac{8}{3} $$This simplified ratio has the same value as the original. So in our example: $$ \frac{(x+3)\cancel{(x-1)}}{\cancel{x-1}} = x+3 $$ However, what's important to notice here is that in rational expressions we have to avoid division by zero. That means that in our original expression x cannot be 1 because if it would be then the denominator \(x-1\) would be 0. This adds a requirement stating \(x\neq1\). The simplified expression \(x+3\) doesn't involve a division, so the restriction on x is not explicit anymore. So no, I wouldn't say that the simplified expression alone is equivalent to the original one. $$ x+3 \;\;\;\;\;\; x\neq1 $$Would be. Hope i'm clear
Oh okay I understand thank you!:))) have a nice day!
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!