Calculus. Limits
\[a_n = 6n \cos (npi)\]
Determine whether the sequence converges or diverges. If it converges, find the limit
test?
oh
idk where to start
i was hoping to find out how to figure out whether its convergent or divergent and the limit if it is convergent
i know that cos oscillates between -1 and 1... but how do i test for convergence with that?
freckles!
\[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}a_n=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}6 n \cos( n \pi) \\ \] So we know we have to look at this limit?
yes
is it a plug and chugg thing? where I can try different values for n?
\[-1 \le \cos( n \pi) \le 1 \] as you said now assuming if n>0 which we can do that since n-> positive infinity the inequality is if we multiply by n: \[-n \le n \cos( n \pi) \le n \] I think this should show that your limit alternates between -inf and inf
oscillates*
yes. and what does that mean as far as converging and diverging goes?
it doesn't get close to any particular number it doesn't even go to one particular infinity the limit does not exist
oh wow~!
ok. so, anytime i have a function of cosine... that is set up with multiplication like this... does that always mean DNE?
just like you would say sin(infty) does not exist because this limit oscillates between -1 and 1
What about this one: \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\sin(n)}{n} \text{ or } \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\cos(n)}{n}\]
On my school website, for this particular question, it did not give us an option to say DNE. It tells us to give a value for convergent or write none if it is divergent. I typed NONE for this and it said it was correct. Does this imply divergent and DNE are the same thing?
I would say that one is convergent at zero because 1/n= zero
if it isn't convergent then it is divergent you are certainly correct to type none
Once again freckles, thank you!
yeah both of those I just mention converge to 0 since -1/n<sin(n)/n<1/n and both -1/n and 1/n go to 0 as n goes to inf so sin(n)/n->0 as n goes to inf
we could put cos there instead of sin
so, all of these rules are the same for both cos and sin?
I am going to close this question, so I can open a new one....
Well not exactly... \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}n \cos(\frac{1}{n})= \infty \\ \ \text{ while } \\ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} n \sin(\frac{1}{n})=1\]
ohhh... I see!
\[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} n \cos(\frac{1}{n})=\lim_{u \rightarrow 0^+} \frac{1}{u} \cos(u)=\lim_{u \rightarrow 0^+}\frac{\cos(u)}{u} =\infty \\ \text{ but the other limit } \\ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}n \sin(\frac{1}{n})=\lim_{u \rightarrow 0^+} \frac{\sin(u)}{u}=1 \text{ is a well known limit }\]
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