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Mathematics 18 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

PLease help..

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

what do we know about \(c\) ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

c is a point in (a,b)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@ganeshie8

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\begin{vmatrix} 1&f(b)-f(a)&f'(c)\\ 1&g(b)-g(a)&g'(c)\\ 1&h(b)-h(a)&h'(c) \end{vmatrix}\] A cofactor expansion along the first column gives \[\begin{vmatrix} g(b)-g(a)&g'(c)\\ h(b)-h(a)&h'(c) \end{vmatrix}-\begin{vmatrix} f(b)-f(a)&f'(c)\\ h(b)-h(a)&h'(c) \end{vmatrix}+\begin{vmatrix} f(b)-f(a)&f'(c)\\ g(b)-g(a)&g'(c) \end{vmatrix}\] which simplifies to \[h'(c)[g(b)-g(a)]-g'(c)[h(b)-h(a)]-h'(c)[f(b)-f(a)]\\ \quad+f'(c)[h(b)-h(a)]+g'(c)[f(b)-f(a)]-g'(c)[f(b)-f(a)]\] Use the mean value theorem to replace some terms here and there, and they all disappear.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

In particular, since \(f,g,h\) are continuous and differentiable over the given interval, there exists \(c\in(a,b)\) such that \[f'(c)=\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}\] and likewise for \(g\) and \(h\). For instance, the first two terms in the expansion above give \[\begin{align*}\color{red}{h'(c)}\color{blue}{[g(b)-g(a)]}-g'(c)[h(b)-h(a)]&=\color{red}{\frac{h(b)-h(a)}{b-a}}[g(b)-g(a)]\\\\ &\quad\quad-g'(c)[h(b)-h(a)]\\\\ &=\color{blue}{\frac{g(b)-g(a)}{b-a}}[h(b)-h(a)]\\\\ &\quad\quad-g'(c)[h(b)-h(a)]\\\\ &=\color{blue}{g'(c)}[h(b)-h(a)]-g'(c)[h(b)-h(a)]\\\\ &=0 \end{align*}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

but is it compulsory that the point c will be same for all the functions f,g, and h?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@SithsAndGiggles

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

Thats kinda tricky... Alternatively you may use Rolle's thm to reduce the amont of algebra slightly.. Let \(D(x) = \begin{vmatrix} 1&f(b)-f(a)&f(x)\\ 1&g(b)-g(a)&g(x)\\ 1&h(b)-h(a)&h(x) \end{vmatrix}\) It is not hard to see that \(D(a) = D(b) \) (Add second column to third column for \(D(a)\)). By Rolle's thm there exists some \(c \in (a,b)\) such that \(D'(c) = 0\).

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Ha ha ha... Great... Thanks.:).. @ganeshie8

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