Question

Using the intermediate value theorem show that sin((pi x)/2)=1-x has a solution in (0,1) Help!!!!!!

Answer 1

I tried plugging in 0 for x but I ended up with sin(0)=1 which is not true.

Answer 2

HI!!

Answer 3

start with
\[f(x)=\sin(\frac{\pi}{2}x)+x-1\]

Answer 4

plug in 0, plug in 1
one will be positive, one will be negative
that means it has to be zero in that interval

Answer 5

Thanks :))))))))))

Answer 6

Yeah @aawowaa I think you need a better understanding of the theory.

Answer 7

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