evaluate the following:
ok, where's the problem?
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}\frac{ \ln(1-x)-\sin(x) }{ 1-\cos ^{2}(x) }\]
I smell L hôpital
do you remember l hopital?
yes L'Hopitals
derivate above and below each separated, until you can evaluate. Sometimes you might have to apply other properties. I don't think this is the case
This is the limit from the movie "Mean Girls" I'd like to see if there are any other approaches to evaluate the limit. Cady evaluates the answer in her head.
lol, I only know two methods bro. Grahically and with L hôpital
graphically*
I found out the limit is zero. I gotta check if it's true.
The limit should not exist
:sss I will cry then :C
How comfortable are you with Taylor series?
@SithsAndGiggles I want to learn how to apply Taylor here, please
that would be interesting.
Actually the method might not work. The series I had in mind are centered around \(x=0\) :/
For \(x\) near 0, we have \(\sin x\approx x\) and \(\ln(1-x)\approx -x\). \[\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\ln(1-x)-\sin x}{1-\cos^2x}=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\ln(1-x)-\sin x}{\sin^2x}=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{-x-x}{x^2}=\text{DNE}\]
Not the most rigorous, but I think you can actually reach this conclusion using Taylor series, I must have done something wrong in the series manipulation.
interesting solution. I'm going to have to understand how you can make the assumptions for sin and natural log
I think I see that you took the first two terms in the Mclauren series for sin(x) and ln(1-x)
That's essentially what it amounts to, yeah
Thank you very much. @SithsAndGiggles
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