Help me with 6ii and 8i please. http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge%20International%20A%20and%20AS%20Level/Mathematics%20(9709)/9709_w05_qp_3.pdf
@ganeshie8 @perl dont mind lending a hand?
6ii try sub x = cos^2 theta.
I don't get you
ooop sorry, they gave you the equivalent sub in 6 i. OK, now you just need to integrate 2 sin^2 (theta) and plug in the limits. is that the problem? easiest way to integrate a sin^2 or cos^ is to use double angle formula. so cos 2ø = 2 cos^2 ø - 1 =1 - 2 sin^ ø manipulate that and the integration is easy. does that help?
I did that. Idk how to integrate it.
sub \[\sin^{2}\theta = \frac{ 1-\cos2\theta }{ 2 }\]
from the double angle formula given above: ∫2sin^2 ø = ∫ 2(1 - cos2ø) /2 = ∫ (1 - cos2ø) yes?
Yess,
and change the limits too. you used x = sin^ theta so lims are now ?? <= theta =< ??
then for the \[\cos 2\theta\] , use u=2theta, du=2dx
I realized the limit is 1/6 theta.how do yo you change that?
So is it ( theta - sin theta/2) ?
mmm. you used x = sin^2 theta as the sub, ie theta = arcsin (sqrt(x)) thus, the limits are arcsin (sqrt(0)) and arcsin (sqrt(1/4)). yes?
I don't get you
""So is it ( theta - sin theta/2) ?"" y.
Could please type out the steps for me ? I guess, it'd help more that way.
is this what you have now?
I dont get the limits. hoW do change 1/4 to theta/6??
Heyy I got it alrd. thanks!
Could you pls help me out with question 8i)?
ok, in the integration you let x = sin^ theta. where 0 =< x =< 1/4. so at the upper limit , x = sin^2 theta = 1/4 thus sin theta = 1/2, so theta = arcsin (1/2) OK? after that, you just use your experience - as sin theta is 1/2, you have opposite = 1, hypoteneuse = 2, and adjacent = sqrt(3). and you should recognise this as a 60deg, 30 deg right angled triangle.
Yes I got it alrd. Help me wih wuestion 8 Pls?
sure. have you done part i OK? and did you get something like x(t) = 100 exp(-kt^2 /2)
Im asking for i
ok, sorry. you hve dx/dt = -kxt thus dx/x = -kt dt or ∫1/x dx = ∫ -kt dt that ok?
Uh huh
this has a fancy name -- separation of variables you are given dx/dt = - kxt x is something that varies with both t and itself... but you need to separate the x's and t's -- ie divide both sides by x to get x to the LHS keeping t on the RHS. you get: 1/x dx/dt = - kt this bit i really do not like but it is how it is commonly taught nowadays-- multiply both sides by dt to get dt from LHS to RHS 1/x dx = -kt dt you can then integrate from here. you have ∫ 1/x dx = ∫ -kt dt integrate LHS and RHS separately. but keeping the equals sign!!
Ln x = -1/2 kt^2 + c
Right?
excellent as an *aside*, the k/2 could be replaced by another constant as the /2 bit will just get in the way, but maybe it would be more instructional to keep it as k/2 rather than say P , q or whatever, for now. so, now for the limits. x(0) = 100. what is c?
So ln x = -k/2 t^2 + c x = e^0 . e^c Right?
e^c = 100?
Is c = ln100??
you can keep it as ln(100) = c, or c = ln(100) obviously. that gives you: ln x = -k/2 t^2 + ln(100) then you can bring the ln(100) to the LHS and combine it with ln(x) using your knowledge of logs. that makes it neater. does that make any sense?
sorry, crossed messages. my broadband is very slow and i have this problem all the time. in the last message, i suggest combining ln(x) and ln(100). is that OK?
It's okay. I feel you lol. The answer scheme says just leave it as it is. :) what about ii?
ii has got some messy algebra in it, but you see that you are given x(20) = 90 and you have to find T where x(T) = 50. [i made T up, obviously, call it t* or whatever.....] the first one is given so you can calc k, then using that k you can what T is.
ln 90 = -k/2 20^2 + ln 100 ln 50 = -k/2 T^2 + ln100 agreed?
if you agree with the equations, is there a smart way to do this that avoids the mess and skips having to solve for k?!?!
t 2 = 400(ln 100 – ln 50)/(ln 100 – ln 90)
bingotastic!!! of course ln100 - ln 50 = ln 100/50 yes?
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