1. The continuous function f(x) is defined by \[f(x)=\frac{ e ^{(x-1)^{2}} }{ (x-1)^{2} }\] for \[x \neq 1 \] and f(1) = 1. the function f(x) has derivatives of all orders at x=1.
1. The continuous function f(x) is defined by \[f(x)=\frac{ e ^{(x-1)^{2}} }{ (x-1)^{2} }\] for \[x \neq 1 \] and f(1) = 1. the function f(x) has derivatives of all orders at x=1. a) Write the first four nonzero terms and the general term of the Taylor series for \[e^{(x-1)^2}\] about x=1 b) Use the Taylor series found in part (a) to write about the first four nonzero terms and the general term of the Taylor series for f(x) about x=1. c) Use the ratio test to find the interval of convergence for the Taylor series found in part (b). d)Use the Taylor series for f(x) about x=1 to determine whether the graph of f(x) has any points of inflection.
we are also told that the maclaurin series for e^x is \[e^x=1+x+\frac{ x^2 }{ 2! }+...\frac{ x^n }{ n! } + ...\]
why would we do e^(1-x^2) when its e^(x-1)^2
Latex typo *
$$ \large e^{{(x-1)}^2}=1+{(x-1)}^2+\frac{ {(({x-1})^2})^2 }{ 2! }+...\frac{ {(({x-1})^2})^n }{ n! } + ... $$
@perl i get that this would be for a, but how would u use this for b, i dont realy understand stuff about general terms.
$$ \therefore \text{ means therefore} $$
General term is $$ \large {e^{{(x-1)}^2}=1+{(x-1)}^2+\frac{ {(({x-1})^2})^2 }{ 2! }+...\frac{ {(({x-1})^2})^n }{ n! } + ... \\ \iff \\{e^{{(x-1)}^2}={(x-1)}^{2\cdot0}+{(x-1)}^{2\cdot1}+\frac{ {({x-1}})^{2\cdot 2} }{ 2! }+...\frac{ {({x-1})^{2n}} }{ n! } + ...} \\ \therefore \\ e^{{(x-1)}^2}= \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(x-1)^{2k}}{k!} } $$
@perl what is the difference between a and b?
i mean, how do u incorporate the change in equation? do u make the bottom (x-1)^2 k! ?
b is the general term. a) is the first 4
err, the first 4 are
@perl isnt b asking about the first 4 terms of f(x) and \[f(x)=\frac{ e ^{(x-1)^{2}} }{ (x-1)^{2} }\] so how would u go about to solving this?
$$ a) \large \text {The first four terms are } \\ \large {e^{{(x-1)}^2}=1+{(x-1)}^2+\frac{ {(({x-1})^2})^2 }{ 2! }+\frac{ {(({x-1})^2})^3 }{ 3! }\\ =1+{(x-1)}^2+\frac{ {({x-1})^4} }{ 2 }+\frac{ ( x-1)^ 6 }{ 6 } \\ \large \text { The general term is }\\ \\{e^{{(x-1)}^2}={(x-1)}^{2\cdot0}+{(x-1)}^{2\cdot1}+\frac{ {({x-1}})^{2\cdot 2} }{ 2! }+...\frac{ {({x-1})^{2n}} }{ n! } + ...} \\ \therefore \\ \\ e^{{(x-1)}^2}= \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(x-1)^{2k}}{k!} } $$
b) $$ \large { e^{{(x-1)}^2}= \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(x-1)^{2k}}{k!} \\ \therefore \\ \Large \frac{e^{(x-1)^2}}{(x-1)^2} = \frac{\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(x-1)^{2k} }{k!} }{(x-1)^2} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(x-1)^{2k} }{k!(x-1)^2} \\\text{ }\\ \Large =\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(x-1)^{2k-2} }{k!} } $$
and what steps do u take for c? i have a general idea of how to do the ratio test, but im not too sure
so i would get (x-1)^2 / (n+1) i would make the abs value of that = 1? or would imake it equal to 0, if 0, than y?
the limit of that is zero
why would the limit be 0?
$$ \\\Large { \lim_{n \to \infty} |\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| \\[0.2 in] \\ \\ \lim_{n \to \infty} |\frac{ \frac{ (x-1)^{2(n+1)-2} }{(n+1)!}} {\frac{(x-1)^{2n-2} }{n!}}| \\ = \lim_{n \to \infty} |{ \frac{ (x-1)^{2n} }{(n+1)!} \cdot \frac{ n! }{(x-1)^{2n-2} } } | \\ = \lim_{n \to \infty} |\frac{(x-1)^2}{n+1}|\\ = (x-1)^2 \cdot \lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac{1}{n+1}| = (x-1)^2 \cdot 0 = 0 } $$
Since the limit is always less than 1, the series converges for all x.
so the interval of convergance would be 0?
the interval of convergence is all real numbers
and how would u solve d?
you have a mistake , the maclaurin series for e^x is about x = 0, not x = 1
no, he gives us that maclaurin series at the start, than the questions are about the taylor series where x = 1
Write the first four nonzero terms and the general term of the Taylor series for $$ e^{(x-1)^2}$$ about x=1. We plugged (x-1)^2 into the maclaurin series for e^x, which is centered at x = 0. we cant do that
but if u center it at 1, x-1 is 0, which means that the graph would only shift, right?
hmm, we might be able to do that
so how would we do d?
i know that inflection is second derivative so do i find the second derivative and plug it in?
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