Evaluate the limit using l'Hopital's Rule (I tried this, but I can't figure out where I went wrong :/) lim(y->pi/2)((pi/2)-y)
lim(y−>π/2)(π2−y)\[\lim(y−>π/2)(\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }−y)tany\]
ignore the first part
@jim_thompson5910 if you can help, it would be greatly appreciated :)
@dan815
@tkhunny
In what state is in an Indeterminate Form?
what
Not a good response. In order to utilize l'Hospital's Rule, you must have an Indeterminate Form. Do you?
Well I would've said California, but I figured that that was the wrong answer :3 Yes we do have an indeterminate form
Prove it. It's not obvious.
0 times infinity
That doesn't contain a Numerator and Denominator, which is where the rule is useful. Is there a firm like that?
* form
Yes there is. You have to rewrite with an LCD
Then you get a fraction
Show me.
Its what my teacher told me to do
Okay. Show me.
Oh wait, thats infinity-infinity
For this one, its with natural logs
so you take the natural log of the inside part
Then the exponent can be rewritten as a multiplier
Then you rewrite as a fraction
Are we talking about the same problem? \(\lim_{x\rightarrow \pi/2}\left(\pi/2 - y\right)\cdot \tan{y}\)
Yes
Sorry, 'y', not 'x'.
Wait i was wrong again
Sorry
Then why not just \(\dfrac{\pi/2 - y}{\cot(y)}\)? This gives the form 0/0.
This is the one where you rewrite as division
Don't get hung up on techniques. Get hung up on when the rule is applicable and then just get it where it is useful.
I did\[tany/(1/((\pi/2)-y)))\]
Which is infinity over infinity
Then I l'hopitaled
And got sec^2x/(-1/((pi/2)-y))^2)
And I got hung up because thats infinity over infinity as well, and l'hopitaling again wouldn't help me in any way
Well, that's ONLY because you chose poorly when you moved something to the denominator. You already have a linear factor in the numerator. That will vanish with the first derivative. Don't move it. Move the tangent to the denominator.
I didn't realize that there were rules for choosing
The sign was wrong, too. But you can worry about that, later.
We only worked with x's as the multiplier. Then you could just rewrite those as 1/x
There are not rules for choosing. Don't get hung up on such things. You can, however, choose wisely in many circumstances.
I just assumed to do the term with the x in it
Yup. It got you nowhere. Move the tangent and give it a go.
k
I got -y/-csc^2y
So thats
pi/2/0
so infinity
-y? Try that numerator, again.
oh snap
-1. sorry bout that
And of course I messed up the unit circle. Its 1
Thank you so much for your help. How do you decide which part to pick to rewrite as division?
It's not always obvious. With a little smirk on my face, you pick a way that is useful. :-) If you find that one way is not useful, try something else.
What did you get for the final answer?
So basically the same thing as integration by parts XD
1
Perfect. Good work.
Fair enough. Keep in mind what you will be differentiating. If you only make things more difficult, that's not likely to be helpful. Keep up the good work.
Thank you very much!
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