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\[\lim_{x \to\infty}xe^{\frac{ 1 }{ x }}-x\]
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or more to the point, why is it 1?
holy cow! wut is this math
or more more to the point, why is it 1 without using power series?
Hum did you try finding the first derivative?
\[\Large \lim_{x\to \infty}(xe^{1/x} - x)\] \[\Large \lim_{x\to \infty}(x(e^{1/x} - 1))\] \[\Large \lim_{x\to \infty}\left(\frac{e^{1/x} - 1}{1/x}\right)\] then use L'Hospitals rule
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oh wow thanks !
no problem
old trick i forgot to use here the form was messing me up
yeah I had to look it up myself a while back. It has to be in the form f/g
thanks guys
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