Question on comment Please, help
hello loser what do you need help with?
omg this sounds so weird i don't actually mean loser ...
\(f(x,y) =\begin{cases}(x^2+y^2) sin (\dfrac{1}{x^2+y^2}~~~if~~~ (x,y) \neq (0,0)\\0~~~if~~~(x,y) =(0,0)\end{cases}\)
Prove: f(x,y) is differentiable at (0,0) but \(\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x}\), \(\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial y}\) are not continuous at(0,0)
See http://mathinsight.org/differentiable_function_discontinuous_partial_derivatives
@Loser66
Thank you. :)
I got all, but for the part \(\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x}(x,y)= lim_{(x,y)\rightarrow (0,0)}(2xsin(\dfrac{1}{x^2+y^2}-\dfrac{2x}{x^2+y^2}cos(\dfrac{1}{x^2+y^2}))\) I need a neat argument to say it is undefined
@pitamar
turn to polar: \(x =r cos \theta\) \(y = r sin \theta\) as \((x,y)\rightarrow (0,0)\) , \(r\rightarrow 0\) lt becomes
\(lim_{r\rightarrow 0} 2rcos \theta sin(1/r^2) -\dfrac{2 cos (1/r^2)}{r}\)
Question: \(lim_{r\rightarrow 0} \dfrac{1}{r}=??\) \(\infty\) or \(undefined\)?? I know I should not be confused on this basic knowledge like that but ..... I have no choice. hehehe
\[ f(x,y)=\left(x^2+y^2\right) \sin \left(\frac{1}{x^2+y^2}\right) \] \[ g(x,y)=\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial x}=2 x \sin \left(\frac{1}{x^2+y^2}\right)-\frac{2 x \cos \left(\frac{1}{x^2+y^2}\right)}{x^2+y^2} \] \[ g\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi n}},0\right)=\\\frac{2 \sin (\pi n)}{\sqrt{\pi } \sqrt{n}}-2 \sqrt{\pi } \sqrt{n} \cos (\pi n)=-2 \sqrt{\pi } \sqrt{n} \cos (\pi n)=\\-2 \sqrt{\pi } \sqrt{n} (-1)^n\]
This will do it
@Loser66
I don't get why we have to do it and how it relates to our argument. I am sorry for being dummy.
You have a sequence \[\left (\frac {1} {\sqrt {\pi n}}, 0 \right) -> (0, 0)\]
but \[g\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi n}},0\right)=\\\frac{2 \sin (\pi n)}{\sqrt{\pi } \sqrt{n}}-2 \sqrt{\pi } \sqrt{n} \cos (\pi n)=\\-2 \sqrt{\pi } \sqrt{n} \cos (\pi n)=-2 \sqrt{\pi } \sqrt{n} (-1)^n \] does not go to zero, so the g is not continuous at (0,0). Got it
Yes, thank you so much. :)
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