Can somebody help me prove this?
Prove that the rearrangement of the series \(\sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n}=1 -\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4} +\dots \) that takes the sum of two positive terms and then a negative term (i.e. \(1+\frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{2} +\frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{7} - \frac{1}{4}+\dots\) ) converges and does to a different limit than the original.
hmm both diverge how do u know they converge ?
i know the it converges by the alternating series test all that is needed is that the absolute value of the terms goes to zero
the original sum is \(\log(2)\) trying to figure out a nice closed form for the second sum
(1+1/3+1/5+1/7+....)-(1/2+1/4+1/6+...) eh =(
that is not the rearrangement they are looking for the sum of
hahaha i know i still feel dull about it xD
\[\sum\limits_{n= 1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n} \] \[\lim\limits_{n\to \infty}\dfrac{1}{n} = 0\\~\\\frac{1}{n}\gt\frac{1}{n+1}\] By alternating series test the series must converge. Say it converges to \(X\) \[\sum\limits_{n= 1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n} =X\tag{1}\]
Next consider the rearrangement \[\begin{align}&1+\frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{2} +\frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{7} - \frac{1}{4}+\dots = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\dfrac{1}{4n-3} + \dfrac{1}{4n-1} -\frac{1}{2n}\right)\\~\\ &= \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\dfrac{1}{4n-3} \color{blue}{-\dfrac{1}{4n-2}} + \dfrac{1}{4n-1} -\frac{1}{4n} \color{blue}{+ \frac{1}{4n-2}}- \frac{1}{4n} \right)\\~\\ &= \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\dfrac{1}{4n-3} \color{blue}{-\dfrac{1}{4n-2}} + \dfrac{1}{4n-1} -\frac{1}{4n}\right) +\frac{1}{2}\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \left( \color{blue}{ \frac{1}{2n-1}}- \frac{1}{2n} \right)\\~\\ &= \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n}+\frac{1}{2}\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n}\\~\\ &= X+\frac{1}{2}X\\~\\ & = \dfrac{3}{2}X \end{align}\]
:O
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