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Mathematics 19 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

A man lifts various loads with the same lever. The distance of the applied force from the fulcrum is 2.50 m and the distance from the fulcrum to the load is 0.650 m. A graph of resistance force vs. effort force is attached inside! What is the mechanical advantage of the lever? What is the ideal mechanical advantage of the lever? What is the efficiency of the lever? Show all work! ***How do I go about solving this? :/ Thanks!! :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

graph! :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

x2 + y2 = H2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

what would i substitute in? :/

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

the relationship between the applied force F_A, the effort force R, and their distances d_A, d_R from the fulcrum respectively, is: \[{F_A}{d_A} = R{d_R}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay, so what happens from here? :O

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

I think that the mechanical advantage, by definition is given by the subsequent ratio: \[\frac{R}{{{F_A}}}\]

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

namely: \[\frac{R}{{{F_A}}} = \frac{{{d_A}}}{{{d_R}}}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay, so would that be .650/2.5 ? :/ not sure what those values would be :/

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

no it is the inverse, namely: 2.5/0.650

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohh okay, so mechanical advantage=R/Fa=2.5/0.650=3.846153846 ?

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

yes! we may approximate it to 3.85

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay! :) so now we need to find what the ideal mechanical advantage would be? and what the efficiency is? :/

OpenStudy (anonymous):

im not sure how to do that :/

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

I'm looking at your graph

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok:)

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

I think that the ideal mechanical advantage is given by the ratio y/x, namely y/x= 3.2, since y stands for R, and x stands for F_A, so we can apply the above formula

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay:) so y/x=3.2 from given information? so 3.2/1=3.2 is ideal mech. adv.?

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

I'm not sure, since in general an ideal quantity has to be Greater that the same quantity when measured

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

oops..Greater than...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohh okay, so it should be something other than 3.2? It should be a number bigger than 3.85? if so, how can we find that?

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

please wait...

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

I'm trying...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okie:)

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

I think that our graph was made using experimental points, namely using measured forces and measured distances, so we can assume, as ideal mechanical advantage, the ratio 3.2, Now we ahave to explain, why our ratio is Greater than 3.2?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohh okay so 3.2 is the ideal mechanical advantage! I'm not sure, why would it be greater? :/

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

In general, in drawing an experimental graph, not all points fit the ideal line, so we can admit that the pair applied force F_A, and the load R are eligible as experimental data, but do not fit the straight line

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

for example the all thermal machines have an efficiency about 40-45%. Nevertheless only the ideal Thermal machine (Carnot Machine) has an efficiency of 50%, and that efficiency is the max efficiency of a Thermal machine

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

oops.. the Carnot Machine has an efficiency of 1, not 50%

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohh okay:) i see:) so the efficiency for this problem is 1? :/ is that what they are asking for when it asks for efficiency? it is 1?

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

I think that the efficiency of is given by the inverse ratio, namely: 0.650/2.5 * 100

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohh okay, so it would be 0.26*100%=26% efficiency ?

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

yes! I think

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yay! so the problem is completed? :O

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

please wait...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok:)

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

I think that the efficiency is 1, since there are not friction forces acting on our lever

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohh wait so it is not 26% efficiency? :/ it is 1?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

can it be both 26% and 1? :/ confused haha :P

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

because an efficiency of about 26%, means that part of our energy will lost due to friction forces

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohh okay, so how would i show the work for the efficiency of 1? :/ i have to show work and also do not understand how we would get to 1?

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

in order to show that the efficiency is 1, we have only to note that for our mechanical system no friction forces are acting on it

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohh so i could just say that the efficiency is 1 bc no friction forces are present?

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

yes! For example if I have an electrical engine, I know that engine when is on, it will heat himself, namely part of the electrical energy of input will be lost as Thermal energy, so the mechanical energy in output to our engine, is less than the electrical energy in input, here is that the efficiency of our electrical engine is less than 1

OpenStudy (michele_laino):

on our lever no friction forces are acting on it, so there aren't losses of energy

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohh okay!! thank you:D

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