Initial value problem
\[y' + y \tan (x) = \cos^2 (x) , y(\frac{ \pi }{ 4 }) = \frac{ 1 }{ 2}\]
\[y' = \cos^2(x) - ytan(x)\]
\[\int\limits_{}^{} \cos^2(x) - y \tan(x) dx\]
is this how I should solve this problem? This is new to me
thats not how i remember this going
youve got a y stuck in there, you cant just play it like that
Yeah I noticed it. I'm unsure as to how to proceed though.
let y = e^(rx), what is y'?
or ive seem some: let y=x^n, and y' is?
n x^(n-1)
sub in, not sure which one is more apt for this tho
solve the homogenous part first y' + ytan(x) = 0 which may be seperable
\[y'+ytan(x)=0\] \[\frac{y'}{y}=\frac{-sin(x)}{cos(x)}\] does this look doable?
y'/y=-tan(x)?
yep
but might want to rewrite the tan, its more noticable that way
alright then I would end with y'/y = -(sin(x)/cos(x)) + cos^2(x)
no, work the homogenous (the =0) first to get a y_h solution
\[y'+yf(x)=0\] \[\int y'/y=-\int f(x)\] \[ln(y)=F(x)+C\] \[y=Ce^{F(x)}\]
ask if somethings confusing
from ln(y) = F(x) +C how does it changes to y = Ce^F(x)?
base e both sides and recall \[a^{i+j}=a^i~a^j\]
as such e^C is just some arbitrary constant
if C was there then it would just have been e^F(x) right?
if C was not there, then yes
ok, got it.
so, how do we apply this to your problem?
shouldn't it be -F(x) + C?
thats not really important, it was a generality
what is the integration of -sin(x)/cos(x) ?
ln|cos(x)|
good so we have ln(y) = ln(cos(x)) + C e^(ln(y)) = Ce^(ln(c0s(x))) y = ________
y=Ce^(ln|cos(x)|)
and e^ln(this) = this
shouldn't it be y = Ce^(ln|cos(x)|)?
which makes y = C*cos(x)
yes thats fine now that we have y_h, the homogenous solution of y, we want to find the particular solution y_p some texts call this y_c
I don't have knowledge as to what is "y_h" and so on.
y_1 and y_2 maybe?
nope, never saw that
oh well, then this is something new :) or maybe there was another way to approach it ... but i dont see how we can proceed if you like
sure
now youll learn some day that that the solution y, is a linear combination of y_1 and y_2, or whatever they want to start you off with: later they call it a homogenous and a particular solution (y_h and y_p) such that: y = ay_h + by_p is the full solution
homogenous just means that the y's setup is equal to 0 and solved youll learn that y_p is a multiple of y_h by some function u(x) or whatever name youwant to call it; ill call it A(x) and write y_p = A cos(x) , realizing that A is a function of x not a constant y'_p = A' cos(x) - A sin(x) and we sub it into the equation and solve
\[(y_p)'+(y_p)tan(x)=cos^2(x)\] \[A'cos(x)-Asin(x)+Acos(x)tan(x)=cos^2(x)\] \[A'cos(x)-\underbrace{\cancel{Asin(x)+Asin(x)}^{0}}_{homogenous~part}=cos^2(x)\] \[A'cos(x)=cos^2(x)\] can you solve A' ?
this is basically A' = cos(x) but what happened to the past answer y= C*cos(x)?
its still a part of y .. we are solving a particular part of y now y_p
y = C cos(x) + y_p y = C cos(x) + A(x) cos(x) etc ...
you see that part i crossed out, the homogenous part? that is taken care of as we solve for y_p .... we expect it to go to zero in the solving process since it equalszero when we found it the first time
I see but where does the A(x) comes from?
its a function that multiples to y_h to make it an independant vector, but thats something that youll learn or forgot to learn it makes the particular solution valid so that its not just some constant multiple of y_h
is quite strange because the professor didn't go over this although I missed one day but there is no way she taught this in an hour lol
watch A' = cos(x) A = sin(x) + C y = y_h + y_p y = C cos(x) + (sin(x)+C) cos(x) y = C cos(x) + Ccos(x) + sin(x)cos(x) y = 2C cos(x) + sin(x)cos(x) but 2C is just an arbitrary constant ... C eats it up y = C cos(x) + sin(x)cos(x)
now we need to find the C is when we have the initial condition :)
hmm I see what's going on. is y_h as y underline h?
or is there a symbol or something to it
\(y_h\) h for homogenous p for particular or c for complment and before this part its just 1 and 2
i dont know how well another idea i have would work, its called an integrating function; pretty much the A(x) they call u(x) and work a reverse product rule
by any chance does this fall under Sequences and series - infinite sequences of real numbers . . .
\[\mu(x)[y'+ytan(x)=cos^2(x)]\] \[\mu(x)y'+\underbrace{tan(x)\mu(x)}_{=\mu'(x)}y=\mu(x)cos^2(x)\] .... i wouldnt know what it falls under :) ive been out of college too long to remember specific chapters and such
is it \[\int\limits_{}^{}\frac{ y' }{ y } really = \ln(y)? \int\limits_{}^{}\frac{ \frac{ dy }{ dx} }{ y }\]
if u' = u tan(x) u'/u = tan(x) ln|u| = ln|-sin(x)| , we dont need all functions so when C=0 its fine u = -sin(x) works \[\mu(x)y'+\underbrace{tan(x)\mu(x)}_{=\mu'(x)}y=\mu(x)cos^2(x)\] \[\mu(x)y=\int\mu(x)cos^2(x)~dx\] \[y=\frac{1}{\mu(x)}\int\mu(x)cos^2(x)~dx\] \[y=-\frac{1}{sin(x)}\int\sin(x)cos^2(x)~dx\]
forgot a negative, drop the one there lol
ln(y) , chain rule, derives to y'/y
right?
derivative of ln(y) isn't 1/y?
no, y wrt.x not y wrt.y
\[\frac{ 1 }{ y} dy\]
if no 'wrt.' is stated then its implicitly considered a function of x or time or something else. the derivative of y is y' the derivative of ln(x) is x'/x the derivative of cos(u) is -u' sin(u) etc ...
oh ok ok
\[\frac{dy/d*}{y}\]
if we know what it is 'with respect to' then we can determine if the (') variable is equal to 1 or not :)
wrt.x: x' = dx/dx = 1 wrt.x: y' = dy/dx = whatever it gets to be wrt.t: u' = du/dt = whatever it gets to be
going back to : y_p = A cos(x) , realizing that A is a function of x not a constant y'_p = A' cos(x) - A sin(x) how do you determine which is y_p and y'_p?
we solve for y_h by setting cos^2(x) tp 0 in this case then setting y_p = A y_h w can determine y_p for the particular solution of cos^2(x)
the solution to y_p will contain y_h in it once its solved, which i demonstarted by pulling it out and combining it to the y_h we already had there
ok so first was the part where we solve y' + ytan(x) = 0
which ended with the result of y = Ccos(x)
notice that when A is equal to some constant, then y_p = C y_h is already a solution
not y, y_h
\[(y_h)'+(y_h)tan(x)=0\] from this we determined y_h = C cos(x), a constant multiple of cosine
ohhh ok that makes a bit more sense
once yh is solved then comes yp?
yes, once we know one solution to it, the homogenous solution, then we can use that to determine a particular solution as a multiple of y_h and some function of x
correct
refresh to get rid of the diamonds .. its a copy paste decoding error for some reason
ok so we have y_h = Ccos(x) and A' = cos(x)
right, plugging in y_p and y'_p we determined A' = cos(x)
how is y_h and A' related
A' = cos(x) A = sin(x) + C y = y_h + y_p
nvm I see it
notice: y_p = (sin(x)+C)cos(x), we would expect it to contain y_h since its made from it
y_h = Ccos(x) and y_p = sin(x)+C
where does the other cos(x) after (sin(x)+C) come from?
from the build we did y_h = C cos(x) let y_p be some multiple of y_h ... instead of a C, make it a function y_p = A(x) cos(x) , now this is equal to y_h when A(x) is a constant, right?
yes
when we solve for y_p, it will inherently have y_h built into it y_p = A cos(x) ; A = (sin(x)+C) ^^^ theres it is y_p = sin(x)cos(x) + Ccos(x) which is really just the solution we wanted all along
C is not = to Ccos(x) though
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