does the series diverge or converge?
\[\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{ 1 }{ \ln n ^{\ln n} }\]
@rational could you help me with this one?
could comparison work for this one?
could you show me how to do it?
i would bring down the ln exponent
This might help. $$ \Large {\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{ 1 }{ \ln n ^{\ln n} } \\=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{ 1 }{ \ln n \cdot \ln n } } $$
so you multiply the two?
\[\frac{ 1 }{ \ln n^2 }\]
thats incorrect
$$ \Large {\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{ 1 }{ \ln n ^{\ln n} } \\=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{ 1 }{ \ln n \cdot \ln n } \\=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{ 1 }{ (\ln n )^2} } $$
and then compared that to 1/n?
we can use this argument $$ \Large \rm { n \geq ln(n) , for ~n \geq 2 \\ \therefore \\ \frac 1n \leq \frac{1}{ln(n)} }$$
what about the exponent
you forgot to put it there
\[\frac{ 1 }{ n }\le \frac{ 1 }{ (\ln n)^2 }\]
so the series diverges?
i didnt have a square in my expression
you had it when you multiplied both ln n's
the series 1/ ln(n) diverges for that reason. but we dont know about 1 / (ln(n))^2
so what do we do?
$$ \Large \rm { n \geq ln(n) , for ~n \geq 2 \\ \therefore \\ \frac 1n \leq \frac{1}{ln(n)} \leq \frac{1}{(\ln n )^2} } $$
okay
actually this is only true for n > 2 , for n >= 3
$$ \Large \rm { n \geq \ln (n) \geq (\ln n) ^2 , ~for~ n ~\geq 3 } $$
yeah that statement is true
now when we invert (reciprocal), the signs of the inequality is reversed. example : 2 < 4 1/2 > 1/4
as long as you are positive (thats the only condition)
if x > y then 1/ x < 1/y for x , y positive
true
$$ \Large \rm { n \geq \ln (n) \geq (\ln n) ^2 , ~for~ n ~\geq 3 \\~\\ \therefore \\ ~\\ \\\frac{1} {n} \leq \frac{1}{\ln(n)} \leq \frac{1} {(\ln n) ^2} } $$
you can show that it is true (ln n ) ^2 > Ln (n) , for n > = 3 look at the graph f(x) = ln(x)^2 - ln(x) note how it dips below the x axis at first https://www.desmos.com/calculator/pir1s5tzyn
thats not a proof, but it suggests it is true
you can take the derivative of that and show it is positive for x greater than some number between 2 and 3
$$ \Large \rm { n \geq \ln (n) \geq (\ln n) ^2 , ~for~ n ~\geq 3 \\~\\ \therefore \\ ~\\ \\\frac{1} {n} \leq \frac{1}{\ln(n)} \leq \frac{1} {(\ln n) ^2} \\~\\ \therefore \\ ~\\ \\ \sum_{n=3}^{\infty } \frac{1} {n} \leq \sum_{n=3}^{\infty } \frac{1}{\ln(n)} \leq \sum_{n=3}^{\infty } \frac{1} {(\ln n) ^2} } $$
and you are off by one term, you can just add them through
but the series is n = 2 not 3 why you change it?
the inequality is not true for n = 2
its not true for n = 2
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