which number is large
\[m = [1;\overline{1}]=1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}}\] and \[n = [1;1,2,\overline{1}]=1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{2+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}}\]
I'm back!
I am going to evaluate the truth value of this statement since it seems likely true, just a guess: \[n<m\]\[1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{2+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}} < 1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}}\] Subtracting both sides of the inequality by 1 and then multiplying both sides by the fractions is exactly the same as just flipping the direction of the inequality and shifting the number up! So we can do this flip flop climb: \[1+\dfrac{1}{2+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}} > 1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}}\] \[2+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}} < 1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}}\] \[2<1\] Hey that's false! So it turns out that m<n! Fun!
how did that happen xD i was thinking n>m lol
Actually I am just realizing this flip flop thing is quite interesting in that it implies that the parity of how far down it is placed determines which is greater than the other... Kinda uncomfortable. Maybe I have some flaw in my logic here let me just work out the recursion since I know that'll get the right answer I just wanted to try something new.
thats a very cool trick, im still trying hard to identify the flaw
there is no flaw! it looks perfect to me
Here's something interesting and probably flawed. \[n =1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{2+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}}\] \[n =1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+m}}\]
`(...)the parity of how far down it is placed determines which is greater than the other...` i think this is true, keeping everything constant, the parity of position whose value we increase determines whether the value be greater or lesser...
Interesting, I wonder if we could extend this with modular arithmetic in mind and consider perhaps 3 different numbers and depending on how they're arranged we could look at 3n, 3n+1, and 3n+2 down the stack to determine their order a<b<c ?
\[a=[a_0;a_1,a_2,a_3\ldots ]=a_0+\dfrac{1}{a_1+\dfrac{1}{a_2+\dfrac{1}{a_3+\ddots}}}\] \[b=[b_0;b_1,b_2,b_3\ldots ] =b_0+\dfrac{1}{b_1+\dfrac{1}{b_2+\dfrac{1}{b_3+\ddots}}} \]
\(a_i = b_i\) for all \(i\), except for \(i=\) some position ?
then we want to compare a and b ?
Ahhh this sounds good, I think this is a great generalization and should work exactly identically.
Okay conjecture : \(b\gt a\) if we keep \(a_i=b_i\) for all \(i\) but increase one particular even index, \(i=2j\) In initial example, we kept everything same except \(a_2\) and we got \(n\gt m\)
So if \[\large a_{2i}<b_{2i} \implies a<b \\ \large a_{2i+1}<b_{2i+1} \implies b<a\]
that looks good to me! xD
We could definitely do some sort of inductive proof to show this, to give a quick example of how we can construct it, I am satisfied that this is true already. \[\Large a_2 < b_2 \\ \Large \frac{1}{b_2}<\frac{1}{a_2} \\ \Large a_1+ \frac{1}{b_2}<a_1 + \frac{1}{a_2}\]
but we should changing only one value and keep everything else same
Now this is pretty confusing to think about, so I'm not exactly sure if this is the right way to try to generalize up a step, but I want something of this form: \[\large a_{3i}<b_{3i} <c_{3i}\implies ??? \\ \large a_{3i+1}<b_{3i+1} <c_{3i+1} \implies ??? \\ \large a_{3i+2}<b_{3i+2} <c_{3i+2}\implies ???\] So maybe we have to change more than one value, and have one base number 'a' that gets changed at two different spots to create 'b' and 'c'.
Nice you're working the fraction up \[\Large a_2 < b_2 \\ \Large \frac{1}{b_2}<\frac{1}{a_2} \\ \Large a_1+ \frac{1}{b_2}<a_1 + \frac{1}{a_2}\\ \frac{1}{a_1+ \frac{1}{b_2}}\gt\frac{1}{a_1 + \frac{1}{a_2}}\\~\\ a_0+\frac{1}{a_1+ \frac{1}{b_2}}\gt a_0+\frac{1}{a_1 + \frac{1}{a_2}}\\~\\ n\gt m \]
Of course we could have also started with the infinite thing and build on top of it, but since they're exactly identical by construction there's no reason to really include it since it's just adding that equal value to both sides. The only other place other than talking about the golden ratio here that I've seen repeated fractions like this is this really interesting thing in knot theory where there's this isomorphism I guess it's called between tangles and fractions exactly like this. Except that knots are finite, so you can't really get an infinite repeating fraction this way but it's just another thing I'm considering.
I never studied knots/topology but that looks very interesting, it is easy to see that any finite fraction like this converges to a rational number.. idk if this is relevant but here it is : any finite simple continued fraction converges to a rational number any infinite simple continued fraction converges to a irrational number
Oh interesting I have never heard that before but it kind of makes sense since an infinite continued fraction will obey some sort of polynomial
While a finite one is clearly rational
im thinking about what happens to a "finite continued fraction" if we increase more than one of the even indexed positions. earlier we observed increasing "exactly one even indexed position" increases the value.
Is it correct to say that the value increases if we increase "any number of even indexed positions" ? one sec, im searching for counterexample..
let me put the question a bit more neat
Consider two finite simple continued fractions :\[a=[a_0;a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots,a_n]\] \[b=[b_0;b_1,b_2,b_3,\ldots,b_n]\] such that \(a_i=b_i\) when \(i\) is odd \(a_i\le b_i\) when \(i\) is even. then is it true that \(a\le b\) ?
that seems to be true, if it is really true then we don't need to work in mod 3 !!
Hmmm I see what you're saying I think, let me play around with it a bit to figure out some stuff
Can u write a and b in fraction form ??
I don't get [] notations in a,b , so if it possible to rewrite it that I would understand :(
Yeah that seems completely right to me the way you've said it, they should only ever make the number larger. So if we have one base number such that for all i, \(1=a_i=b_i\) except at one place on each number maintains the parity \(a_{2i+k}=b_{2i+k+2}\) which one is larger? So a specific example is: \[ a =1+\dfrac{1}{2+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}}\] and \[ b= 1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{2+\ddots}}}\]
ikram :\[a=a_0+\dfrac{1}{a_1+\dfrac{1}{a_2+\dfrac{1}{a_3+\ddots+\dfrac{1}{a_n}}}}\] \[b=b_0+\dfrac{1}{b_1+\dfrac{1}{b_2+\dfrac{1}{b_3+\ddots+\dfrac{1}{b_n}}}}\]
that looks more interesting, im still thinking..
Here's a little example of the notation hopefully this makes better sense. \[n = [x;y,\overline{z}]=x+\dfrac{1}{y+\dfrac{1}{z+\dfrac{1}{z+\ddots}}}\] so we have x before the semicolon cause it's just a number added to this big fraction thingy on its own, so it's sort of special. Then we just start numbering down, so next is y. Then next we have z with a bar on it, which means it repeats infinitely so it'll just be more z's all the way down. Hope this helps @ikram002p !
Yeah, got it :)
Hmm seems like combaring n-I is needed
I think the way I phrased it is sort of misleading, since there will be 4 different values at 2 spots... Hmmm
if we have one base number such that for all \(i\), \(1=a_i=b_i\) except at one place on each number maintains the parity \(a_{2i+k}=b_{2i+k+2}\) then \(b\gt a\) because the entire fraction to the right of \(b_2\) will be less than \(1\) : \[a =1+\dfrac{1}{2+\dfrac{1}{1+\dfrac{1}{1+\ddots}}}\] \[b= 1+\dfrac{1}{1+\color{blue}{\epsilon}}\]
\(\color{blue}{\epsilon}\lt 1\) is easy to see...
that means changing a number in the top affects the value more than changing the number in down...
I meant to ask the more general question, for two fractions that are the same everywhere except at two spots that are 2 apart, then which one is more important to be greater? A specific case, but general enough to see what I mean(I hope) is: \[ a =n_0+\dfrac{1}{x_1+\dfrac{1}{n_2+\dfrac{1}{n_3+\ddots}}}\] and \[ b= n_0+\dfrac{1}{n_1+\dfrac{1}{n_2+\dfrac{1}{x_3+\ddots}}}\] GIVEN: \[\LARGE n_1<x_1 \\ \LARGE n_3<x_3\] since we just found out what the answer is if x1 and n3 were both larger or or both smaller.
Wait ok nevermind I think you answered my question after all, I might not have understood it one sec...
Actually this result is kind of obvious too >_>
Yeah like also when ai=bi when I is odd and ai<=bi.when I is even then a>b
yes! b > a is easy to see because we're assuming all are integers
1/(any integer) is less than 1 so \(n_1\lt x_1 \implies n_1+\color{blue}{\epsilon} \lt x_1+\color{blue}{\delta } \) provided \(n_1, x_1\in \mathbb{N}\) and \(\color{blue}{0\lt \epsilon,\delta\lt 1}\)
Just a thought if you're interested in going this road, what if we can make some function or sequence there, are there any that simplify nicely, just a small example \[n = [1;2,3,4...]=1+\dfrac{1}{2+\dfrac{1}{3+\dfrac{1}{4+\ddots}}}\] \[m = [f(x)]=f(1)+\dfrac{1}{f(2)+\dfrac{1}{f(3)+\dfrac{1}{f(4) +\ddots}}}\]
I'm noticing that if f(x) is a periodic function it will be exactly solvable. So one fun result is if the function is the constant function f(x)=1 then we get the golden ratio.
cool stuff xD i saw the first continued fraction before, it converges to `0.697774657964007982006790592...` http://oeis.org/A052119
+1
For any period of 1 (constant function) \[\large n^2=1+n f(x) \\ \large n= \phi \iff f(x)=1\] Cool I'll check this out interesting.
that also proves n is irrational i think at least for period 1 case...
because the only possible rational roots of polynomial \(n^2=1+nf(x)\) are \(\pm 1\) and none of them satisfy the equation.
Nice
If the period of f is 2, in other words f(x)=f(x+2) then we get this equation for n (which simplifies down to the previous equation if f(1)=f(2) ). \[\Large n^2 f(2)-nf(1)f(2)-f(1)=0 \\ \Large \implies \\ \Large n= \frac{f_1f_2 \pm \sqrt{(f_1f_2)^2+4f_2f_1}}{2f_2}\]
nice :) and i think we can show \(m^2+4m\) is never perfect square...
I'm trying to understand if there's any significance to when f(1)=0 and f(2)=1 in the above equation since it will equal 0 if you plug that in.... hmmm
f(x) must always evaluate to a positive number
otherwise things will break..
Oh plugging in zero for either will always imply division by zero I see where it goes wrong in the algebra, interesting.
That's a cool comment, about how 4m+m^2 is never a perfect square. Interesting, that sorta just fell out of that. I am sorta barely brave enough to see what period 3 looks like, I wonder what we would get if we put like multiplicative functions or some weird number theory function there.
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=n%3Da%2B1%2F(b%2B1%2F(c%2B1%2Fn))&t=crmtb01 Or written out: \[n = \frac{f_1f_2f_3 +f_1-f_2+f_3 \pm \sqrt{(f_1f_2f_3+f_1-f_2+f_3)^2 +4(f_1f_2+1)(f_2f_3+1)}}{2(f_2f_3+1)}\] Hmmmm...
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!