Please explain p implies q I don't get why its not: if p is true then p->q true
Is it just by definition or is there something behind it?
if p, then q is notated: p -> q this is equivalent to saying: -p or q
Is there more to it than that?
there is most likely more to it, but im not sure what your ponderance is about perse
hypothesis -> conclusion hypothesis implies conclusion if hypothesis is true then conclusion is true if hypothesis is false then conclusion false
if hypothesis is false does not imply conclusions are false
if i am human then the moon is real: true if i am human then the moon is fake: false i am superman then the moon is real: true i am superman then the moon is fake: true
a lot of assumptions going on there :)
how about this: why is it equivalent to -p or q
consider it this way. if our hypothesis has no bearing on the conclusion, there is not cuase and effect, then we are in make believe and anything anyone says is true in make beleive.
if (2+3=7), then (4/3=9) .... we are in make believe land if (2+3=7), then (4*2=8) .... we are still in make believe land
they are equivalent becasue they have the same exact truth structure when 2 things are the same, they are equivalent
p->q always true when q true p false, q false, p->q true because false implying a false is true p true, q false, p->q false because true implying a false is false
not too sure if thats how id put it, but i see nothing controvertible about it
george boole i believe is regarded as the father of the calculus of logic
Thanks for the help!
sure ;)
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