Question

Set Theory

Answer 1

Let \(\large f\) be the subset of \(\large \mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{Z}\)

defined by \(\large f=\{(ab,a+b)\ ,a+b)\ :\ a,\ b \in \mathbb{Z}\}\)

.Is \(\large f\) a function from \(\large \mathbb{Z}\) to \(\large \mathbb{Z}\) ?

Answer 2

for f to be a function, what properties should f have?

Answer 3

1 to 1 image

Answer 4

\[\large f=\{(ab,a+b)\ ,a+b)\ :\ a,\ b \in \mathbb{Z}\}\]Check if this is correct...

Answer 5

correct

Answer 6

I think there's typo in (ab,a+b)

Answer 7

ok ...

Answer 8

yes

Answer 9

0 maps to what?

Answer 10

\(\large {\text{Let} \quad f \ \text{be the subset of}\quad \mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{Z} \\
\text{defined by} \quad f=\{(ab,a+b)\ :\ a,\ b \in \mathbb{Z}\} \\
.\text{Is}\quad f\ \text{ a function from} \ \ \mathbb{Z} \ \text{to}\ \mathbb{Z}} \)

Answer 11

typo corrected

Answer 12

so, 0 maps to what in co domain?

Answer 13

1

Answer 14

i didnt understand ur question