The question
There are are 2 1/x terms in the second product, that should be 1/z right?
i didnt understand ur statement
$$ \large \color{black}{\begin{align} (x+y+z)\left(\dfrac1x+\dfrac1y+\dfrac1{\color{red}{x}}\right)\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ \end{align}} $$ should be $$ \large \color{black}{\begin{align} (x+y+z)\left(\dfrac1x+\dfrac1y+\dfrac1z\right)\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ \end{align}} $$ right?
oh yes , u r correct
find the minimum value of \(\large \color{black}{\begin{align} (x+y+z)\left(\dfrac1x+\dfrac1y+\dfrac1z\right)\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ \end{align}}\) if \(\large \color{black}{\begin{align} \{x,y,z\}\in \mathbb{R^{>0}}\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ \end{align}}\)
why did you block me???
Multiplying everything out we get $$ x/y+y/x+x/z+z/x+z/y+y/z+3 $$ Using method of lagrange multipliers with objective function $$ f(x,y,z)=x/y+y/x+x/z+z/x+z/y+y/z+3 $$ and constraint $$ xyz=0 $$ We get $$ x/y=1\\ x/z=1\\ y/z=1\\ $$ So minimum is $$ x/y+y/x+x/z+z/x+z/y+y/z+3=6\times 1+3=9 $$ Are you familiar with this process? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lagrange_multiplier Note, although x>0,y>0,z>0, I used xyz=0 for the constraint since this is the lower bound of their domain. Here is the setup $$ \Lambda(x,y,z)=f(x,y,z)+\lambda(xyz-0)\\ $$ The first differential is $$ \Lambda_x=1/y-y/x^2+1/z-z/x^2+\lambda yz=0 $$ The other differentials are similar Using the constraint and this equation I get x/y=1 The other results follow in a similar manner.
well actually idk calculus
HI!! what class is this?
this is type of question of SAT
just asking because i think we can precede just by thinking, although i am not sure your math teacher will like it q
\[a^2+b^2\ge 2ab\]
\[(x+y+z))(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z})\] is completely symmetric in \(x,y,z\) by which i mean if you permute them you get the same thing another way of saying you can't tell the difference between \(x,y\) and \(z\)
and they are all positive numbers, not negatives allowed
so since you can't tell the difference between the numbers, it will have a minimum when they are all equal
if \(x>1\) then \(\frac{1}{x}<1\) to balance it out, make them all 1 and you get \[(1+1+1)(1+1+1)=9\]
like i said, it is just thinking, your math teacher might have a more complicated explanation
I'm not so sure about that symmetry argument but we can use AM-GM inequality
\[\begin{align} (x+y+z)\left(\dfrac1x+\dfrac1y+\dfrac1z\right) &= \frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}+\frac{y^2+z^2}{yz}+\frac{z^2+x^2}{zx}+3 \\~\\ &\ge \frac{2xy}{xy}+\frac{2yz}{yz}+\frac{2zx}{zx}+3\\~\\ &\ge 2+2+2+3\\~\\ \end{align}\]
i am not either, but not only is it symmetric in x, y, z, it is also symmetric in 1/x,1/y,1/z so how could it be anything other than x = y = z = 1?
thnx
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