someoen helpp pls.. medals and fan question in comment
@IrishBoy123
@mathmate
@phi
my first thought is write W as \[ w= \exp(i \ 2 \theta) = \cos(2 \theta) + i \sin(2 \theta) \] and use the double angle identities sin 2x = 2 sinx cosx cos 2x = cos^2 x - sin^2 x Have you tried that ?
yes tried it..
i dont know how to use it well.. so can you help in proving ?
First, do the top w-1 replace w with exp(i 2 theta) and then use Euler to rewrite in terms of cos and sin can you do that ?
ive done all that.. and even replaced it in the above eqn
what do you get ?
\[(\cos 2\theta +i \sin \theta - 1)/ (\cos 2\theta + isin \theta +1 )\]
I assume you mean i sin 2 theta, right?
oh yeah sorry...
now let's just do the top. \[ \cos 2\theta +i \sin 2 \theta - 1 \] use the double angle formulas to replace the cos and sin can you do that and post what you get ?
\[1-2\sin ^{2}\theta + i 2\sin \theta \cos \theta -1\]
ok, I would simplify 1-1, and factor out 2 sin theta
(knowing we want a tan, so try to get sin up top and cos down below)
.
top is \( 2\sin \theta\left( -\sin \theta+ i \cos \theta\right) \)
now do the bottom. what do you get ?
the same as the top part i fink ,, just we have to factor out cos theta ?
it can't be exactly the same because we have w+1 instead of w-1
yes wait i try it
\[2\cos ^{2}\theta -1 + 2\sin \theta \cos \theta +1\]
good ?
yes, except for the missing i in the 2 sin cos term so the bottom is \[ 2 \cos \theta\left( \cos \theta +2 i \sin \theta\right) \]
yes..
**fix that extra 2 I left in the previous post. you have , so far \[ \frac{2\sin \theta\left( -\sin \theta+ i \cos \theta\right)}{ 2 \cos \theta\left( \cos \theta + i \sin \theta\right)} \]
yes
there is some obvious things to do: cancel 2/2 write sin/cos as tan so it is looking closer to what we want \[ \tan \theta \frac{\left( -\sin \theta+ i \cos \theta\right)}{ \left( \cos \theta + i \sin \theta\right)} \] any idea what to try next to tackle the fraction ?
no
though I don't know what I'll get up top, I would try multiplying top and bottom by the complex conjugate of the bottom ... because I know that will give me 1 in the bottom)
thank you.. got the answer as per your instructions
There are other ways to do this, but the way we did it is probably as simple as any other.
Since w is defined by \((1,2\theta)\) hence \(x = cos (2\theta), y= sin(2\theta)\) and \(w = x + iy\\1= 1+oi\\w-1=(x-1)+iy\) \(w+1= (x+1) +iy\) \(\dfrac{w-1}{w+1}= \dfrac{(x-1)+iy}{(x+1)+iy}\) \(=\dfrac{(x-1)(x+1)+y^2}{(x+1)^2+y^2}+i\dfrac{y(x+1)-y(x-1)}{(x+1)^2+y^2}\) Now, real part: \(\dfrac{(x-1)(x+1)+y^2}{(x+1)^2+y^2}=\dfrac{x^2-1+y^2}{x^2+2x+y^2+1}\) but \(x^2+y^2=1\) hence the real part =0 Imaginary part \(i\dfrac{y(x+1)-y(x-1)}{x^2+y^2+1+2x}=i\dfrac{yx+y-yx+y}{2+2x}\) \(i\dfrac{2y}{1+x}\)
sorry, the last line is \(=i\dfrac{y}{1+x}\)
Now, replace \(y = sin 2\theta = 2 sin\theta cos\theta\) \(x = cos 2\theta \\1 + cos 2\theta= 2cos^2 \theta\) we have it is \(itan\theta\)
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