Question

This is Microbiology, but couldn't find the subject. Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (vrsa) was isolated from the exit site of a dialysis catheter in a 40-year-old diabetic with a history of periphreal vascular disease, chronic renal failure, and chronic foot ulcers. A few months earlier, the patient's gangrenous toe had been amputated. Following that surgery, the patient developed bacteremia. Vancomycin, rifampin, and graft removal successfully treated to infection. A few months later, when the catheter exit site infection appeared, the are was cultured & the catheter removed,

Answer 1

Hello welcome to open study!

Answer 2

i dont think she is new

Answer 3

successfully treating the infection. A week later the patient's chronic foot ulcer again appeared infected. Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecalis (VRE) and Klebsiella oxytoca were cultured from the ulcer. The patient recovered after wound care and systemic treatment with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxozale.

Answer 4

Analysis of the VRSA isolate revealed that it contained the van A gene for vancomycin resistance and the mec A gene for oxacillin resistance.

-How do you think the Staphylococcus aureus strain ended up with the gene for vancomycin resistance?
-What is one possible mechanism for genetic transfer of antibiotic resistance from one organism to another?
-Why would this particular patient be at increased rick for infection with VRSA?
-Provide a detailed explanation of how genes, such as those responsible for drug resistance, be transferred between bacterial species?
-Where could S. aureus likely have acquired the genes for drug resistance?
and
-What do we call infections that are acquired in a medical setting AND how are they tracked within hospital facilities?

Answer 5

What do you think?

Answer 6

I think for the first question the S.aureus strain ended up with the gene for vancomycin when the patient developed the bacreremia. The second one I'm at a loss for. The third one I think the patient would be at an increased risk because of the resistances (is that even a word? lol) the patient has. The fourth one I'm also at a loss for. The fifth one, isn't that like the first question? And i'm not sure about the last one.

Answer 7

you are on the right track.
gene transfer occur from one bacteria to another and then self-mutation may have happened. Usually, complete treatment does not involve 100% success and may have still missed a few bacteria that have mutated during its growth and produced characteristics already resistant to the treatment.