Let A, B \(\in M(n, \mathbb C)\)and assume B is invertible. Show that 1) \((B^{-1}AB)^k= B^{-1}A^kB\) 2) Use 1 to show \(e^{tB^{-1}AB}=B^{-1}e^{tA}B\) Please help
1) is easy. But I don't know how to do 2 @ganeshie8 @dan815
is it given that A is diagonal matrix ?
Nope, that is all.
invertible meaning non-singular matrix.. there's an inverse.
nvm, I got it. :) Thanks for being here.
for 1) \((B^{-1}AB)^k = (B^{-1}AB)(B^{-1}AB)........(B^{-1}AB)\) open parenthesis and \(BB^{-1}=I\) gives us the answer
for 2) by definition \(e^{tA}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{t^k}{k!}A^k\)
we replace A by \(B^{-1}AB\) then just simplify it to get the answer.
\(e^{tB^{-1}AB}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{t^k}{k!}(B^{-1}AB)^k =\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{t^k}{k!}B^{-1}A^kB \) ?
yeah.... this proof looks familiar. Miracrown helped me with one of them.
how do you conclude
@ganeshie8 sum and t, k are constants, right? hence, we can distribute inside, between \(B^{-1}\) and A
Are you saying we can take \(B^{-1}\) out ?
Yes
\(\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{t^k}{k!}B^{-1}A^kB =B^{-1}\left(\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{t^k}{k!}A^k\right)B \) ? this looks ok intuitively but idk what you're gonna use as justification
Look at the definition of \(e^{tA}\) above
Yes looked.
And we done, right?
I am asking the justification for that distribution
I think its not so obvious, at least for me it is not.
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