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Mathematics 7 Online
Parth (parthkohli):

Cool solution.

Parth (parthkohli):

Problem: Prove that\[\left(\frac{1 + a}{1+b}\right)^{\frac{1}{a-b}}< e\]for distinct reals \(a,b\).

OpenStudy (freckles):

How many seconds can I have to think about it before you give the solution? :p

Parth (parthkohli):

Try it out. Just meant to share this problem.

OpenStudy (freckles):

\[(\frac{1+a}{1+b})^{\frac{1}{a-b}} \\ =(\frac{1+b+a-b}{1+b})^\frac{1}{a-b} \\ =(1+\frac{a-b}{1+b})^{\frac{1}{a-b}}\] \[=(1+\frac{1}{\frac{1+b}{a-b}})^\frac{1}{a-b} \\ =(1+\frac{\frac{1}{1+b}}{\frac{1}{a-b}})^\frac{1}{a-b}\] \[\lim_{a-b \rightarrow \infty}(1+\frac{\frac{1}{1+b}}{\frac{1}{a-b}})^{\frac{1}{a-b}}=\lim_{a-b \rightarrow \infty} e^{\frac{1}{1+b}} \\ ...\] if a-b goes to infinity I don't think we can say anything about the limit of b from that so that limit should be just exp(1/(1+b)) ..I don't know if this is the right route For some reason this is the first thing that popped in my head

Parth (parthkohli):

Ganeshie is here - he'll easily crack this one. :|

OpenStudy (freckles):

I did something wrong

OpenStudy (freckles):

I should have said 1/(a-b) goes to infinity

OpenStudy (freckles):

which would mean a-b goes to 0

Parth (parthkohli):

`ganeshie8 is typing a reply...` Well, here we go.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

$$\left(\frac{1 + a}{1+b}\right)^{\frac{1}{a-b}}< e\\\frac1{a-b}\log\left(\frac{1+a}{1+b}\right)<1\\\frac1{a-b}\left(\log(1+a)-\log(1+b)\right)<1\\\log(1+a)-\log(1+b)<(1+a)-(1+b)$$... is just a restatement of the fact that \(\log\) is concave by Jensen's inequality

OpenStudy (anonymous):

all those steps are reversible, so the proof just follows from the fact that \(\log\) is concave via Jensen's inequality

OpenStudy (freckles):

I don't think my way is good enough it only shows for a close to b we have exp(1/(1+b)) but I think this right here is <e for any real b

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

\[e^{x-y} \gt 1+(x-y)+(x-y)^2/2 \gt 1+x-y = 1+\dfrac{x-y}{1+y} = \frac{1+x}{1+y}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

haha that one is great

OpenStudy (anonymous):

but hmm @ganeshie8 both you and i have only proven it for \(a-b>0\) technically

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

Ah right, I see..

OpenStudy (anonymous):

unless you can rigorously show that the even terms outweigh the odd ones in the expansion \(e^x=1+x+\frac12 x^2+\dots\)

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

looks the taylor series one also requires \(y\gt 0\) \[e^{x-y} \gt 1+(x-y)\gt 1+\dfrac{x-y}{1+y} = \frac{1+x}{1+y}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@parthkohli share your answer

Parth (parthkohli):

@ganeshie8 That's exactly my answer. I think I got the incomplete question.

Parth (parthkohli):

Hey, your next project is to implement LaTeX in the drawing tool. That looks good.

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

looks the inequality is true only when \(a,b\) have same signs |dw:1437673377179:dw|

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