I'm confused a little...
How does the integral of secxtanx = secx ?
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
it doesnt ._.
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Really? XD lol
Then what is is?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
it*
OpenStudy (anonymous):
sec(theta)=\[\frac{ 1 }{ \cos*theta}\]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Right
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jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):
if y = sec(x), then dy/dx = sec(x)*tan(x)
take this in reverse to get \[\Large \int(\sec(x)\tan(x))dx = \sec(x) + C\]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Ohhh right! That makes sense!!
jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):
if you had no idea that dy/dx = sec(x)*tan(x)
then you can convert sec(x)*tan(x) into (1/cos)*(sin/cos) which becomes sin/(cos^2)
from there you use u-sub
u = cos(x)
du = -sin(x)dx
OpenStudy (usukidoll):
that's one of the standard derivative definitions...
The derivative of secx is secxtanx
the antiderivative of secxtanx is secx.
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Yeah I would've had to go through it with u-sub... i didn't know that dy/dx of secx = secxtanx
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