Question

A chef draws cookies randomly from a box containing 6 cookies of the same shape and size. There is 1 chocolate cookie, 3 almond cookies, and 2 butter cookies. He draws 1 cookie and then draws another cookie without replacing the first one. Find the probability of picking 1 almond cookie followed by another almond cookie, and show the equation used.



Please EXPLAIN THE ANSWER

Answer 1

@ganeshie8

Answer 2

@Loser66

Answer 3

@Mehek14

Answer 4

@midhun.madhu1987

Answer 5

ok first time
3 almond cookies and 6 total

Answer 6

so
\(\dfrac{3}{6}=\dfrac{1}{2}\)

Answer 7

Thank you for coming to help me @Mehek14. (:

Answer 8

next you don't replace it
that means there are only 2 almond cookies left and 5 cookies in total

Answer 9

that means \(\dfrac{2}{5}\)

Answer 10

so multiply both of them
\(\dfrac{1}{2}*\dfrac{2}{5}\)

Answer 11

Ok can you explain the answer all together please so i will understand better

@Mehek14

Answer 12

sure

Answer 13

Ok ty

Answer 14

when you choose the almond cookie for the first time, there are 3 almond cookies and 6 cookies in total
so the probability of getting an almond cookie is \(\dfrac{3}{6}\) which can be simplified to \(\dfrac{1}{2}\).
when you don't put the almond cookie back, there will be only 2 almond cookies in the box and the total will be one less so the total is 5 and the probability is \(\dfrac{2}{5}\)

to find your answer, you have to multiply \(\dfrac{1}{2}*\dfrac{2}{5}\)

Answer 15

Ok then when i multiply that i get my answer?

Answer 16

\(\dfrac{2}{10}=\dfrac{1}{5}\)

Answer 17

@Mehek14. Ok im confused whats the last two fraction for i thought u said i have to muliply those fractions to get me final answer

Answer 18

yes 1*2 = 2
2 * 5 = 10
\(\dfrac{2}{10}\)

Answer 19

simplify to 1/5

Answer 20

And 2/10 is the final answer @Mehek14

Answer 21

simplified to 1/5

Answer 22

so 1/5 is the answer