Question

Jason has two bags with 6 tiles each. The tiles in each bag are shown below:

Six squares are numbered sequentially from 1 to 6.

Without looking, Jason draws a tile from the first bag and then a tile from the second bag. What is the probability of Jason drawing the tile numbered 5 from the first bag and an odd tile from the second bag?

3 over 6
4 over 6
3 over 36
4 over 36

Answer 1

can you answer this part
What is the probability of Jason drawing the tile numbered 5 from the first bag ?

you want the fraction: # of 5's in the bag divided by the total number of tiles in the bag

Answer 2

would my answer be 3/36 @phi

Answer 3

can you answer
What is the probability of Jason drawing the tile numbered 5 from the first bag ?

Answer 4

but the probability is 5/6

Answer 5

the probability of picking the number "5" from a bag with
1,2,3,4,5 in it

is not 5/6

the top number in the fraction is the "number of 5's in the bag"
how many cards are labeled 5?

Answer 6

1/5

Answer 7

yes. the idea is if you had lots of people pick a card from the bag (then put it back)
about 1/5 people would have picked the 5.

now we find the probability of picking an odd number from the bag:
1,2,3,4,5
how many of those are odd numbers?

Answer 8

3

Answer 9

sry i take so long to reply :b

Answer 10

yes, so the probability of picking an odd number is
# of odd numbers divided by total number of cards in the bag

3/6

Answer 11

the probability of both picking a 5 from the first bag and an odd number from the 2nd bag is the product (i.e. multiply) of the two probabilities

(I guess you have to memorize this, as I can't explain it easily)
so your answer is
1/6 * 3/6

multiply top time top and bottom times bottom

Answer 12

some of this should make a little sense.
for example, if you had
1,3,5,7,9
in the bag, the chances of picking an odd number is 100%
(they are all odd)
and if we calculate # of odd divided by number of cards we get 5/5= 1
(or 100%)

on the other hand if we had
2,4,6,8,10
the chances of getting an odd is 0
if we calculate it, # of odds is 0
and 0/5= 0
so at least those cases make sense, right?

Answer 13

right, so my answer is 3/6

Answer 14

your answer is
\[ \frac{1}{6} \cdot \frac{3}{6} \]
to multiply fractions, multiply top times top and bottom times bottom

Answer 15

oh ok so my answer is 3/36 right?

Answer 16

yes. 3/36 (or 1/12 if they simplify it... sometimes they will do that to trick you)

Answer 17

ok then, thank you !!! ^_^