Let m = p1^e1 * p2^e2 * ... * ps^es, where pi are distinct primes. How does the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic proves m|n if and only if pi^ei | n for all i?
I only need to prove the backward direction.
Fundamental theorem of arithmetic guarantees you that there are no other prime factorization representations for \(m\)
But how does that prove that m|n?
According to fundamental theorem of arithmetic, the prime factorization representation is unique up to the order of factors.
so if each of the prime powers divide \(n\), then by euclid lemma it follows that the product of the prime powers divide \(n\) since \(\gcd({p_i}^{e_i},~{p_j}^{e_j})=1\) for all \(i\ne j\)
since fundamental theorem of arithmetic guarantees that there are no other prime factorization representations for \(m\), the proof ends.
for example : \(m = 2^35^4\) suppose \(2^3\mid n\) and \(5^4\mid n\) since \(\gcd(2^3,5^4)=1\), by euclid lemma we have \((2^3*5^4)\mid n\) by fundamental theorem of arithmetic, we know that there are no other prime factorization representations for \(m\), so it follows that \(m\mid n\).
so the Euclid lemma states that if p is a prime, and p | ab, then p|a or p|b correct?
that is one version of euclid lemma
here is another version https://i.gyazo.com/9bef4aa867f4a65e0da4c77295d83bdc.png
there are couple more variants, but all of them are same.. you can derive one from the other
I'm trying to see that pattern of which letters in Euclid's lemma corresponds to which letters in the question. So if a|bc, and gcd(a,b) = 1, then a | c gcd(a,b) is like gcd(p1^e1, p2^e2, ..., ps^es) right?
see *the*
we need to prove this : If \(a\mid c\) and \(b\mid c\), with \(\gcd(a,b)=1\), then \(ab\mid c\)
right. That's what I just noticed and somehow it doesn't look like Euclid lemma
above is another variant of euclid's lemma
O: it's another variation of Euclid's lemma???
Yes, its proof is trivial, try it
what is euclid's lemma according to ur book ?
Ok. Let me try if you wouldn't mind. Had I known this variation, I wouldn't have asked this question to begin with. gcd(a,b) = 1 implies there exists x,y such that ax + by = 1
since a|b and b|c, by definition, ak = b and bs = c
oops a|c implies ak = c
multiply c for both sides gives acx + bcy = c. and subsitute a(bs)x + b(ak)y = c
that'll do
ab (sx + ky) = c implies ab|c whoah I did it!! :D
ok, now I can apply this veriation of Euclid lemma to prove the question each pi^ei divides n and since gdc(p1^e1, .., ps^es) = 1, by Euclid lemma m|n
sry actually this is not euclid's lemma, this is corollary of bezout's identity
oh ... lol
but anyways, I understood it now. I only need this corollary of bezout's identity to prove. Makes much more sense!
also, I noticed that m * gcd(k1,k2,...ks) = n where p1^e1 * k1 = n, ..., ps^es * ks = n. Do you think it's true?
i don't get you
what are k1, k2, ... ks ?
by givens, p1^e1 | n, ... ps^es | n . The k1, ...., ks are the integers in the definition of divisibility
I was just trying to prove by definition. I need to find an integer k such that m k = n. and what I noticed is k = gcd(k1, k2, ..., ks)
let's use the example above. 2^3 | 10,000 5^4 | 10,000 so, 2^3 * 1250 = 10,000, where k1 = 1250 5^4 * 16 = 10,000, where k2 = 16 gcd(1250,16) = 2 and coincidentally, 2^3 * 4^2 * 2 = 10,000
I think this only works if gcd(2^3, 5^4) = 1, which it is
typo :O 2^3 * 5^4 * 2 = 10,000
so here is the conjecture. If a | n and b|n and gcd(a,b) = 1, then ab * gcd(x,y) = n, where ax = n and by = n. If you have any comments to this conjecture, let me know. What matters is that I understood how to prove the original question.
btw @ganeshie8 Thank you for helping me with the original question :)
looks good to me, try proving it :)
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