I want to clarify something about the convergence of series and sequence.
So, for sequence to converge 1) Bound below and above 2) Monotonic (can be always decreasing or always increasing)
and for series: 3) The limit [n→ infinity] A(n) = 0 (am I correct)
yes, but the converse does not hold on 3)
yes, what other conditions are there?
well, yes not on those 2 - harmonic series.
not those 3*
But, what else must be true?
of series?
yes convergence of series
there are many many theorems
Oh, like Σ 1/n^p then p>1 geometric series |r|<1 (and that is where ratio test is coming from) and others....
incl alternating series test.... and others
so it basically depends on a series in every unique cse?
case*
pretty much. there are some nice ways for some families of functions, but in general there is nothing that will deal with them all.
if you're comfortable with sequences, then you may think of any series as a sequence of partial sums
I also will assume we are talking about the real numbers with the regular topology.
yes, that is what i am reading on wiki and other sites ganeshie
yes. no imaginary sequences. I am not considering anything crazy
Getting good with sequences is a great idea if you are planning on doing analysis. There are definitions of continuity that uses sequences that make things much nicer than dealing with the standard \(\epsilon -\delta\) definition
alright
I was reading wiki just 3-5 minutes ago, and I saw that \(\large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \sum_{ n=1 }^{ \infty } \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n}=\ln(2)}\) (they don't post any link to an explanation)
(i can create a new Q. if that is how the policy would play this time)
(sorry if i am typing to much, don't be afraid to tell me to shut up:))
This does not easily fall without other identities.
which identities?
series expansion of ln(x)
criterian for convergence of an alternating series is an interesting one i remember seeing a very nice proof from analysis
Maybe I am wrong, but I don't any basic ways to show this without more tools.
You can find the taylor expansion and plug in two...
But you are not proving anything....
wait can i start from taylor series of 1/x and integrate?
yeah
but you already know you can do that, so what is the point :)
unless you just feel like symbol pushing :)
\[\frac 1{1+x}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-x)^n\] integrate both sides and plugin \(x=1\) this is fun but yeah doesn't give you the bigger picture of beatiful alternating series
oh, we can get a series represenation for ln(x+1) :) nice
\(\large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \ln(x+1)=\sum_{ n=1 }^{ \infty } \frac{(-1)^nx^{n+1}}{n+1}}\)
ln(x) has no hope at x=0 but surely it behaves well for all finite positive values of x
oh yeah my index should have been n=0, i made that err
and nice to hear it works for other ln values
\(\large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \ln(x+1)=\sum_{ n=1 }^{ \infty } \frac{(-1)^nx^{n+1}}{n+1}}\) \(\large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \ln(1+1)=\sum_{ n=1 }^{ \infty } \frac{(-1)^n1^{n+1}}{n+1}}\)
oh, sorry n=0
\(\large\color{black}{ \displaystyle \ln(2)=\sum_{ n=0 }^{ \infty } \frac{(-1)^n}{n+1}}\)
now we're getting into radius of convergence and stuff for what values of x does that series converge ?
ok, let me do ratio test:)
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