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OpenStudy (anonymous):

Laplace transform of f(t)=t^n inductive proof?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So we know the laplace transform of this, but could anyone explain how to use an inductive method. Would we suggest letting n=1, solving for that, n=2 solving for that, n=3 solving for that and then assume it for all cases?

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

setup the integral and see if you can get a recurrence relation

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[F(s)=\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}t ^{n}e ^{-st}dt\]

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

\[\large \mathcal{L}\{t^n\} ~~=~~ \int\limits_0^{\infty} t^ne^{-st}\,dt\] try by parts

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so for \[\int\limits_{}^{}fdg=fg-\int\limits_{}^{}gdf\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

let f=t^n dg=e^(-st)

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

looks good, keep going..

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i'll be using equation mode so bare with me : )

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[F(s)=t ^{n}\frac{ -e ^{-st} }{ s }-\int\limits_{}^{}\frac{ -e ^{-st} }{ s }nt ^{n-1}dt\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you would have to do by parts again right

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

nope, we're done

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you just keep going on forever

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

\[\begin{align}\mathcal{L}\{t^n\} ~&=~t ^{n}\frac{ -e ^{-st} }{ s }\Bigg|_{0}^{\infty}-\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{ -e ^{-st} }{ s }nt ^{n-1}dt\\~\\ ~&=~t ^{n}\frac{ -e ^{-st} }{ s }\Bigg|_{0}^{\infty}+\dfrac{n}{s}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty} t^{n-1}e ^{-st}dt\\~\\ &=0+\dfrac{n}{s}\mathcal{L}\{t^{n-1}\} \end{align}\]

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

so we get the recurrence relation : \[\large \mathcal{L}\{t^{n}\}~~=~~\dfrac{n}{s}\mathcal{L}\{t^{n-1}\}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

isn't the first part (0-(-1))?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh wait, the t out the front

OpenStudy (anonymous):

makes it 0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yep, got it.

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

are you saying \[t ^{n}\frac{ -e ^{-st} }{ s }\Bigg|_{0}^{\infty} = 0-(-1)\] ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

my mistake

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so how is this a recurrence relationship? Its been a while since ive done this

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so the integral is actually the laplace of t^(n-1) right?

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

so we get the recurrence relation : \[\begin{align}\mathcal{L}\{t^{n}\}~~&=~~\dfrac{n}{s}\mathcal{L}\{t^{n-1}\}\\~\\ &=~~\dfrac{n}{s}*\dfrac{n-1}{s}\mathcal{L}\{t^{n-2}\}\\~\\ &=~~\dfrac{n}{s}*\dfrac{n-1}{s}*\dfrac{n-2}{s}\mathcal{L}\{t^{n-3}\}\\~\\ &=\cdots\\~\\ &=~~\dfrac{n}{s}*\dfrac{n-1}{s}*\dfrac{n-2}{s}\cdots*\dfrac{2}{s}*\dfrac{1}{s}*\mathcal{L}\{t^{0}\}\\~\\ &=~~\dfrac{n!}{s^n}*\mathcal{L}\{t^{0}\}\\~\\ \end{align}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

could you simplify that more by saying that the laplace transform of t^0 is just the step change of the process; 1/s?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\frac{ n! }{ s ^{n+1} }\]

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

I think so, but im not so good with control theory...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yeah that would make sense because that is the final laplace transform of t^n

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so im confused why you have: 2/s * 1/s *LT(t^0) why is there a 1/s factor

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

if psble send me the meeting id, il explain it quick

OpenStudy (anonymous):

can you only run this via pc? i have a mac

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

oh wait then

OpenStudy (anonymous):

.exe is pc only i think

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

try this http://download.teamviewer.com/download/TeamViewer.dmg

OpenStudy (anonymous):

what do i do?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

553 005 551

OpenStudy (anonymous):

is the id

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

message me the password

OpenStudy (anonymous):

thanks for that! i'll keep working on it. cheers for the interactive help

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i'm doing a course in process control, and unfortunately we never came across laplace transforms in engineering math (my degree only uses 1st semester engineering math not second) but more learning the better!

OpenStudy (irishboy123):

you can also take an easy one \(\mathcal L \{1\} = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-st} dt = \frac{1}{s}\) and diffeentiate it \(\large \frac{d}{ds} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-st} dt = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{d}{ds}e^{-st} dt = \frac{d}{ds} \frac{1}{s}\) over and over

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