Approximate tan inverse (0.4) to 3 decimal places ( either Maclaurin or Taylor series)

Question

blackstreet23 · Answer

@shalante

blackstreet23 · Answer

@freckles

blackstreet23 · Answer

@PlasmaFuzer

anonymous · Answer

Hello

anonymous · Answer

ok please tell me what you know about taylor and mcclaurin series please?

anonymous · Answer

You're back.... I thought I had lost you

blackstreet23 · Answer

Ohh OK sorry is that I am using my phone and is kind of hard to see notifications

anonymous · Answer

Oh ok that makes more sense.... Yes it is much easier on computer.

anonymous · Answer

So in words then (easier) tell me what you know about taylor and mcclaurin series... I want to know where I have to start

blackstreet23 · Answer

BTW how long are you going to be here ?

blackstreet23 · Answer

I l go to my computer in a bitl

anonymous · Answer

Well I am doing my own homework tonight too so on and off but I am taking a break right now so I am free

blackstreet23 · Answer

came home. Sorry i was doing homework at the park

anonymous · Answer

hello... ok so quickly tell me what you know about the two series please

blackstreet23 · Answer

hold on i will send you a picture of what i did

blackstreet23 · Answer

attachment

blackstreet23 · Answer

do you understand it?

blackstreet23 · Answer

the problem is that i dont get the same answer to two decimal places

anonymous · Answer

Wait what answers are you getting?

anonymous · Answer

I got precisely the same answers and check u used the right series.... seems right to me

anonymous · Answer

Using the Mcclaurin series that is

blackstreet23 · Answer

but it is not right to 3 decimal places

anonymous · Answer

what answers are you getting please?

anonymous · Answer

I got .3805... for both the mcclaurin series and actually putting in tan^-1(0.4) in my calculator

blackstreet23 · Answer

ohh yeah I saw what was my problem

blackstreet23 · Answer

I had it in degrees instead of radians :/

anonymous · Answer

:D yea i figured that was probably the problem... next time just post your answers and I would've known immediately
Specifically from the fact that the result of arctan has to fall between -pi/4 and pi/4 meaning the degress answer is way to large to possible be the answer

anonymous · Answer

This is due to the fact that tan(x) has singularities at those points.... hence arctan's range -1 to 1 corresponds to that

anonymous · Answer

Ok so it looks right to me are you happy do you get what is going on... have any other questions about it?

blackstreet23 · Answer

no. Is ok thanks :)

blackstreet23 · Answer

but i am stuck with another question now