Another Linear algebra question.... see attachments please
First one is the question, the second is what I did, but I don't feel like I have accomplished anything, or if I did I am not sure if I showed it properly.
it is always true (matrices or whatever) that \[(AB)^{-1}=B^{-1}A^{-1}\]
ok
so \[B(AB)^{-1}=BB^{-1}A^{-1}=A^{-1}\]
I have that on my work
Did I do something wrong?
ok what are you trying to check?
I went to check to see if the A^-1 I got was correct and the work I did doesn't seem to match. Could you look at the document I uploaded?
you do not know what A is right? so there is no way to find \(A^{-1}\) other than to compute \[B(AB)^{-1}\]
That's what I did
i guess i am confused how are you trying to check your answer?
Are you able to see the picture I uploaded?
yeah i checked your first multiplication, it is correct
OOOH i see the mistake
I checked by multiplying B^(-1)A^(-1) to see if I got back (AB)^-1
your determinant is wrong
Which one?
should be \(16-28\) not \(16-14\)
wow
Your right....
actually no, i am wrong
it is the determinant of the original matrix hold on
lol no i am right
that is the determinant of the original matrix sorry, still should be \(16-28\)
Is what I did to check correct? (Not the numbers, I know they are wrong, but is the method correct?)
yeah that should work you are checking that \[(AB)^{-1}=A^{-1}B^{-1}\] it should work out
And The question kind of confused me.... they ask me to find the inverse of A "If it is Possible". My Professor is big on Proofs. How do I show this "IS" possible?
All I know is that if (AB)^-1 exists than B^-1 and A^-1 should exist right?
i don't think you need to bother to check the "if possible" business is because it is always possible that the inverse does not exist (if the determinant is zero) but in this case it does exist
yes you are right
Let me ask you this.... the only example I have been given to check if an inverse exists is in 2D..... would I check to see if the inverse of a 3x3 exists in the same way? Take the determinant of the 3x3, and be sure it doesn't equal 0? And if that is correct for a 3x3 is it correct for any mxn matrix as well?
you are told that \((AB)^{-1}\) exists, that means both \(A^{-1}\) and \(B^{-1}\) exist if either one had determinant zero, then so would the product
to answer your question, yes, but if you are told the product has an inverse, then so must the factors
I get that, but I just wanted to know if the concept of a non-zero determinant implying the inverse exists is true in general for any size matrix/
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