Does the series \[\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{1}{\text{lcm}\{n,n+1\}}\]converge?
Using the fact that \(\text{lcm}\{n,n+1\}=\dfrac{n(n+1)}{\text{gcd}\{n,n+1\}}\), I'm almost tempted to say that \[\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{1}{\text{lcm}\{n,n+1\}}\sim\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{1}{n^2}\] but I don't think I can jump to that conclusion just yet.
We agree that lcm(n,n+1) is actually n(n+1). (The gcd is 1, by Euclid's algorithm) Since S=\(\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{1}{\text{lcm}\{n,n+1\}}=\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{1}{n(n+1)}<\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{1}{n^2}\) The strict inequality holds for each and every term, and since \(\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{1}{n^2}\) is a geometric series that is known to converge (=pi^2/6 prove it), so by comparison, S<pi^2/6 so S converges.
* series, not geometric
Right, since \(n\) and \(n+1\) are consecutive, that makes their lcm very easy to determine. And we can find the value of the series while we're at it quite easily: \[\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\sum_{n\ge1}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}\right)=1\]Neat!
Nice! any two consecutive integers are coprime, gcd(n, n+1) = gcd(n, 1) = 1 so lcm(n, n+1) = n(n+1)
consider that the least common multiple of \(n,n+1\) is obviously \(n(n+1)\) since \(n+1-n=1\) and thus they must be coprime. this reduces to $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac1{n(n+1)}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n+1-n}{n(n+1)}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\frac{n+1}{n(n+1)}-\frac{n}{n(n+1)}\right)\\\quad =\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\frac1n-\frac1{n+1}\right)$$ which is obviously telescoping and since \(1/(n+1)\to0\) it converges
well i read that a series that converges has got some bounds and that it approaches a specific value. so in this case its going like 1/2 , 1/6, 1/12 , 1/20..... so u mark a line of length 1 on a number line and u plot the point 1/2 u knw 1/2 is still left between 1/2 and 1 and then u add 1/6 still 1/3 is left so u have bounds and u knw that it can never go > 1 so yea it converges... https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convergent_series
Could we make a more general claim here? Numerically, it would seem that \[\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{1}{\text{lcm}\{n,n+k\}}\]also converges to \(1\) for \(k\in\mathbb{N}\), though much more slowly.
for prime \(k\) the problem is barely any harder -- you merely have to be careful about the multiples of \(k\): $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac1{[n,n+k]}=\sum_{m=1}^\infty\sum_{n=mk+1}^{(m+1)k}\frac1{[n,n+k]}\\\quad=\sum_{m=1}^\infty\left(\sum_{n=mk+1}^{mk+k-1}\frac1{n(n+k)}+\frac1{(m+1)(m+2)k}\right)$$
\[\gcd (n,n+k) \le k \]\[\Rightarrow {\rm lcm }(n,n+k) = \frac{n(n+k)}{\gcd(n,n+k)} \ge \frac{n(n+k)}{k}\]\[\Rightarrow \frac{1}{{\rm lcm} (n,n+k) }\le \frac{k}{n(n+k)}\]We can sum the right-side telescopically so I guess it is true that the sum is convergent?
yeah, showing its convergence along those lines is exactly what I figured
the sum of the terms for \(n\) coprime to \(k\) is accomplished with relatively little effort $$\sum_{n=mk+1}^{(m+1)k-1}\frac1{n(n+k)}=\frac1k\left(\frac1{mk+1}-\frac1{(m+2)k-1}\right)$$ so we get: $$\frac1k\sum_{m=0}^\infty\left(\frac1{mk+1}-\frac1{(m+2)k-1}+\frac1{(m+1)(m+2)}\right)$$now split it up and telescope, I suppose? $$\sum\left(\frac1{mk+1}-\frac1{(m+2)k-1}\right)=1+\frac1{k+1}\\\sum\left(\frac1{m+1}-\frac1{m+2}\right)=1$$ so we get $$\frac1k\left(2+\frac1{k+1}\right)=\frac2k+\frac1{k(k+1)}=\frac3k-\frac1{k+1}$$ for prime \(k\)
oops, ignore that -- I read \((m+2)k+1\) rather than \((m+2)k-1\), so that series does not quite telescope so cleanly
our problem term for prime \(k\) is this: $$\frac1{mk+1}-\frac1{(m+2)k-1}$$
Would that I could hand out more medals...
How do you show \(\gcd (n,n+k) \leq k\) without using Bézout's Identity?
i mean, if (positive) \(d\) divides (positive) \(n\) and \(n+k\) then it also divides their difference, so \(d\) must divide \(k\). it follows that the greatest common divisor is at most \(k\)
you don't necessarily need the full strength of Bezout's identity, just the fact that divisibility is preserved by sums which is very elementary
\(\gcd(n,n+k)=\gcd(n.k)\le k\)
\[ \begin{align*} \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac1{[n,n+k]}&=\sum_{m=0}^\infty\sum_{n=mk+1}^{(m+1)k}\frac1{[n,n+k]}\\ &=\sum_{m=0}^\infty\left(\sum_{n=mk+1}^{mk+k-1}\frac1{n(n+k)}+\frac1{(m+1)(m+2)k}\right)\\ \end{align*} \] \[ \begin{align*} &\phantom{{}={}}\sum_{m=0}^\infty\sum_{n=mk+1}^{mk+k-1}\frac1{n(n+k)}\\ &=\sum_{m=0}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{mk+1}-\frac{1}{(m+1)k-1}\right)\\ &=\sum_{m=0}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{mk+1}-\frac{1}{(m+1)k+1}+\frac{1}{(m+1)k+1}-\frac{1}{(m+1)k-1}\right)\\ &=\sum_{m=0}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{mk+1}-\frac{1}{(m+1)k+1}-\frac{2}{(m+1)^2k^2-1}\right)\\ &=1-\sum_{m=0}^\infty\frac{2}{(m+1)^2k^2-1} \end{align*} \] I think the sum converges but I couldn't prove it.
Comparing to the series \(\sum\frac{1}{n^2}\) would suffice for convergence. It has a somewhat daunting closed form: \[\sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{2}{(m+1)^2k^2-1}=\frac{k-\pi\cot\dfrac{\pi}{k}}{2k}\]
(closed form courtesy of Mathematica)
I thought \(\dfrac{2}{(m+1)k^2-1}\geq\dfrac{1}{n^2}\) for some reason! \[ \min(k)=2\\ \frac{2}{4n^2-1}-\frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{2n^2-4n^2+1}{n^2(4n^2-1)}=\frac{-2n^2+1}{n^2(4n^2-1)}\leq0 \]
\[\sum_{m\ge0}\frac{1}{(m+1)^2k^2-1}=\sum_{m\ge1}\frac{1}{m^2k^2-1}\le\sum_{m\ge1}\frac{1}{m^2}\] since \[1\le k^2-1~~\implies~~ m^2\le m^2k^2-1~~\implies~~\frac{1}{m^2k^2-1}\le\frac{1}{m^2}\](The first inequality is true since \(k\ge2\).)
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