Consider a random walk on the discrete line in which the particle’s initial position is 0, and the position increases by 1 in a step with the probability p and decreases by 1 in a step with the probability q = 1 − p, independently over different time steps, where 0 < p < 1. Given an integer x > 0, what is the probability that the particle ever visits the point of coordinate x? I have no idea where to even begin. There is a mess of equations in the class notes, and he's offered a hint, but I'm unsure how they go together.
what's the hint ?
Hm. Yeah, that may be helpful, huh. "We used the notation $S_1(1)$ for the probability the particle ever visits the region to the right. Moving to the right means moving from y to y + 1. To get from 0 to x, the particle must visit 0, 1, 2, ... x - 1, x"
After some crazy arithmetic I don't understand, he says \[S_1(1)=\frac{p}{q}\]
One of the "I don't understand" is \[\sqrt{1-4pq} = |p - q|\] .. Wat?
crap. \[S_1(z)=\frac{1-(1-4pqz^2)^{1/2}}{2qz}\]
To at least clarify one result, we have that \(\begin{aligned}\sqrt{1-4pq} &= \sqrt{1-4p(1-p)}\\&= \sqrt{1-4p+4p^2}\\ &= \sqrt{(1-2p)^2}\\ &= \sqrt{(1-p -p)^2}\\&= \sqrt{(q-p)^2} \\ &= |p-q| \end{aligned}\)
Great. That makes sense! So obvious now.
I think you need to also specify how many steps are allowed, because if you allow infinitely many steps, the probability for reaching any x ccoordinate is 1
Yeah. I wonder if that's what he's looking for.
Maybe you could find the probability for visiting the value "x" at "nth" step, then add the probabilities for \(n \in \mathbb{N}\)
I believe probability would be more like \(\left(\dfrac{p}{q}\right)^x\) if you hit each one in order of 1,2,.., x-1, x without moving to the left once...but that would just be too easy. XD
I'm not sure. This class drives me insane.
To reach the value "x" at "nth" step, the particle must take (n+x)/2 moves to right and (n-x)/2 moves to left that should allow you to cookup an expression for probability for particle to be at position x at nth step
since the events, moving left/right, are indpendent, we can simply add up all the different probabilities
What the ... The hint says the particle would move in 1, 2, ..., x - 1, x in that order. But that doesn't make sense. if x = 4, it could go 1, 2, 3, 2, 3, 4. To your point @ganeshie8
right, there are infinitely many ways to reach the point x if you are not fixing the "number of steps taken"
Alright. I think I have what I need. Thank you.
go through this if u can http://physics.gu.se/~frtbm/joomla/media/mydocs/LennartSjogren/kap2.pdf it derives below expression for the probability for the particle to be at coordinate m after N steps |dw:1445061538034:dw|
Even better. Makes sense! Appreciate the help!
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