which decimal digits occur as the final digit of a fourth power of an integer? Please, help
well, the fifth happens to be the same as the original number's
as for this, I guess we can find any fourth power last decimals by simply doing those on 1-9
well, 0-9 but that's trivial
Hey, is there any other method than just list the digit out?
uhm, there is, but uh, number theory, uh I got around using the formulas by doing this last time, so uh, I don't remember :/
What does it mean by saying: the last digit of a^2 is a^2mod10?
whats the remainder when you divide 2315 by 10 ?
5
I think I got it.
Hey sorry there was some issue with electricity last night
I know and after sleeping, I figured it out :)
nice :) so what have you figrued out ``` What does it mean by saying: the last digit of a^2 is a^2mod10? ```
all of them :) However, I have another question on this topic. Let me post it here.
If \(a^k \equiv b^k (mod m)\\a^{k+1}\equiv b^{k+1}(modm)\) \(a, b, m, k \in \mathbb Z; m>0, k>0, (a,m)=1\) Prove \(a\equiv b(modm)\)
My question: Why can't we go directly from the problem to get the answer? Since we have \(a^k \equiv b^k (mod m)\) and \(a^{k+1}= a^k *a\) Hence \(a*a^k \equiv b*b^k \implies a\equiv b\)
are we given that \(a^k \equiv b^k \pmod{}\) is valid for all \(k\gt 0\) ?
Why do we have to expand \(a^{k+1}-b^{k+1}= (a-b)(a^{k} +a^{k-1}b +\cdots +b^{k})\) and then use the fact that (a, m) =1 to show that the LHS divided by m iff m | (a-b) to get \(a\equiv b (mod m)\)
Yes
then the question makes no sense, why can't we directly plugin \(k=1\) ?
since we are given that \(a^k \equiv b^k \pmod{m}\) is valid for all \(k\gt 0\) plugging in \(k=1\) gives \(a^1 \equiv b^1 \pmod{m}\)
We cannot, since k is arbitrary,
you have said the given statemetn is true for all \(k\gt 0\) ?
yes
or do you mean \(k\) is some "fixed" positive integer ?
could you take a screenshot of the problem and post ?
For all k > 0
sure
Problem 26
Okay, we should interpret \(k\) as some specific "fixed" positive integer
ok, next?
My question: Why can't we go directly from the problem to get the answer? Since we have \(a^k \equiv b^k (mod m)\) and \(a^{k+1}= a^k *a\) Hence \(a*a^k \equiv b*b^k \implies a\equiv b\) How did you get that ?
oh, yeah, it is invalid!! we have \(a\equiv b \\c\equiv d \\ac \equiv bd\) not backward.
it is perfectly fine, you need to add proper justifications, thats all
\(a^k\equiv b^k \pmod{m}\) and \(a^{k+1}\equiv b^{k+1}\pmod{m}\) together imlies \(a*a^k \equiv b*b^k \equiv b*a^k \pmod{m}\)
so we have \(a*a^k \equiv b*a^k \pmod{m}\) nothing fancy, fine so far, right ?
Yes
but what exactly does that mean
\(a\equiv b\)
\(a*a^k \equiv b*a^k \pmod{m} \iff m \mid (a*a^k - b*a^k)\)
factor out \(a^k\) and apply Euclid lemma
and factor a^k out and use the fact that m not | a to conclude that m | (a-b)
Looks perfect!
Thank you so much.
np
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