The probability of bomb hitting a bridge is 1/2 and two direct hits are required to destroy it.The least number of bombs required so that the probability of the bridge being destroyed is greater than 0.9 is
\(\large \color{black}{\begin{align} & \normalsize \text{The probability of bomb hitting a bridge is}\ \dfrac12\ \text{and two direct hits} \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & \normalsize \text{ are required to destroy it.The least number of bombs}\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & \normalsize \text{ required so that the probability of the bridge being destroyed}\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & \normalsize \text{ is greater than 0.9 is }\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & a.)\ 7\ \ bombs \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & b.)\ 3\ \ bombs \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & c.)\ 8\ \ bombs \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & d.)\ 9\ \ bombs \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ \end{align}}\)
is this a poisson distribution ?
i found a page i cant understand soln here http://mathhelpforum.com/statistics/81015-probability-problems.html
ok, or binomial
i hvent studied poision ditributuion , i have this in probability chapter
then binomial looks appropriate
i also didnt studied binomial distributuion
what techniques are in this chapter ?
Use of AND use of OR Combination of AND and OR Random experiment sample space Event Non-event Imposiible event mutually exclusive event independent event conditional probablity
I guess we can use all of that to derive the binomial distribution, and then solve the problem. For example, what is the chances we have 0 hits in n tries ? Can you do that problem ?
1/2
it is 1/2 if we tried once but what if we try n times ?
(1/2)^n
yes. next, what are the chances we get exactly 1 hit in n tries ?
(1/2)^n
First, what is the prob of hitting on the first shot, and missing on all the others ? 1/2 * 1/2^(n-1) = 1/2^n but we could miss the first shot, hit on the second, and miss on the rest. that is also 1/2^n and so on...
in other words, the chance of making exactly one hit is n * (1/2)^n ok ?
ok
so we know the chances of getting exactly 0 or 1 hit 1 - that prob is the chance of getting 2 (or more) hits in n tries.
in other words, Pr(2 or more hits) = \( 1 - \frac{1}{2^n} - \frac{n}{2^n} \) we want that to be bigger than 0.9 this is not easy to solve, except numerically, so use trial and error.
in other words, the chance of making exactly one hit is \(\color{red}{n}\) * (1/2)^n ok ? where does \(\color{red}{n}\) comes from
say we try 3 times then we could have x 0 0 0 x 0 0 0 x each line has a 1/8 chance and we have a total of 3/8 chance of getting exactly one hit.
thnks
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