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simplifying the trig expression
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would it simplify to = -1 (cosh\[=-1/(\cos \emptyset-1)^2\]
Yes\[\dfrac{\cos\theta-1}{(1-\cos\theta)^3} = \dfrac{-1(1-\cos\theta)}{(1-\cos\theta)^3} = \dfrac{-1}{(1-\cos\theta)^2}\]
because the solution gives this
shouldn't it be : −1/(1−cosθ)^2 < 0
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You're absolutely correct! let me double check it with wolfram
thanks
Yes, you're right. There is no way \(\dfrac{-1}{(1-\cos\theta)^2}\) simplifies to \(-(1-\cos\theta)^2\).
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