If dy dx equals cosine squared of the quantity pi times y over 2 and y = 1 when x = 0, then find the value of x when y = 3.
@jim_thompson5910
rearrange the equation: \[\frac{ dy }{ \cos ^{2} \left( \frac{ \pi y }{ 2 } \right) } = dx\] \[\int\limits_{}^{}\sec ^{2}\left( \frac{ \pi y }{ 2 } \right)=\int\limits_{}^{}dx\]
Closed it by accident please ignore.
This should look familiar to you
Solve the differential equation using the integral I have given you and you will be able to compute the values of y and x and then plug in the values given in the problem.
Just a question, what happened to dy?
there should be a dy
Ok
Not sure if I'm doing it right.
I got \[\tan(y \pi/2) = x\]
yes that is what I got too, but looking at it now, I see it doesn't satisfy the condition when y=1, x =0. Let me check and see where the error could be.
Ok, so we're still on the same page.
but also it is multiplied by the constant 2/pi which you get from u-substitution
I'm getting \[\Large \frac{2}{\pi}\tan\left( \frac{\pi y}{2}\right) = x+C \] after integration. The problem is that when y = 1, the value of `tan(y*pi/2)=tan(1*pi/2)=tan(pi/2)` is undefined. So that's strange how they say `y = 1 when x = 0`
@jim_thompson5910 that's the same thing I'm getting. Could be an error with the problem
So how would I go about this... it's an automated system so I can't just tell em it doesn't make sense.
Should I just play along?
You'll have to bring it up with your teacher
maybe they want you to use Euler's method here?
Ypu could try to use that equation and plug in the value y=3 and see what you get, but I'm pretty sure the problem has an error at least with the initial condition y=1, x=0
kind of going to be difficult though I think to beat the computer on this one, since you need to solve for C using the initial values, and you have an option of none of these, so you won't be able to be compltetely sure.
I'll think I'm gonna go with none of these, thanks for pointing that out. When I plugged in 3 I got an extremely large number.
@jim_thompson5910 what do you think?
see attached for the slope field of dy/dx = cos^2(pi*y/2) If y = 1, then dy/dx = 0 Using euler's method, we'd be stuck on the red line of y = 1 no matter what x is. So it appears that y = 3 isn't possible to achieve. So I agree with @VeritasVosLiberabit I would say "none of these" and consult the teacher. This problem seems a bit off. Perhaps there's a typo somewhere? Then again, since y = 1 makes the f(x,y) function undefined, it is more valid to think of that red line as an asymptote if anything
@VeritasVosLiberabit @jim_thompson5910 Thanks guys, much appreciated.
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