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How is it going? Please, explain me
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\(z= \dfrac{z}{e^z -1}(e^z-1)\) but \(e^z-1) =\sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{x^k}{k!}\)
and \(\dfrac{z}{e^z-1}=\sum_{m=0}^\infty \dfrac{B_m}{m!}z^n\)
Hence, \(z= \sum_{n=0}^\infty (\sum_{k=1}^\infty \dfrac{B_{n-k}}{k!(n-k)!})z^n)\)
why?
Then: \(\sum_{k=1}^n \dfrac{B_{n-k}}{k!(n-k)!} =\begin{cases}0~~if~~n\neq 1\\1~~if~~n=1\end{cases}\) Again, why?
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Sorry, typo at \(e^z-1=\sum_{k=1}^\infty \dfrac{z^k}{k!}\)
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