Find the following limits: the limit of (e^3x)/(x^2+1) as the limit approaches negative infinity the limit of x ln(x) as the limit approaches 0 from the right
please let me know if you used l'hospital's rule or not
Why don't you decide if l'hospital is applicable and then apply the rule?
in the case of the first, I'm not sure how the answer is 0
Did you use l'hospital? What results came for your attempt at a solution?
I know when it reaches positive infinity, the answer DNE because since e is to the power of 3x, it would be approaching a larger, infinite number and deriving x^2+1 would eventually give me 2. But I'm not sure why the answer is 0 in this case? How does it change because it is approaching negative infinity?
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty}\frac{ e^3x }{ x^2+1 }\] divide by x^2 \[\lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty}\frac{ \frac{ e^3 }{ x } }{ 1+\frac{ 1 }{ x^2 } }\] x=-infinity anything/x =0\[\lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty}\frac{ 0 }{ 1+0 }=0\]
note these 2 points\[\frac{ anything }{ \infty }=0\]\[\frac{ anything }{-\infty }=0\]
does it matter at all that its \[\lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty} \frac{ e^{3x} }{ x^2+1 }\]
ok forget what all i did up there^
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty}\frac{ e^{3x} }{ (x^2+1) }\]\[\lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty}\frac{ e^{3\times -\infty} }{ (-\infty)^2+1}\]\[\lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty}\frac{ e^{-\infty} }{ \infty^2 +1 }=\lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty}\frac{ 0 }{ \infty }=0\]
why is \[e^{-\infty} \] = 0?
wait nevermind it becomes 1/e to the negative infinity. thank you!
yes :) np
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