@ganeshie8
Help me understand the first part http://puu.sh/lAwD8/4b15d3612a.png \[ty''+y'+ty=0\] in terms of \[(1+s^2)Y'(s)+sY(s)=0\]
\[\frac{ 1 }{ s^2 }[s^2Y(s)-sy(0)-y'(0)]+sY(s)-y(0)+\frac{ 1 }{ s^2 } Y(s)=0\]
thats what i get using laplace
I mean there's no initial conditions either, so how exactly would you approach this
Oh t = 0
laplace transform is not multiplicative
\[\mathcal{L}(fg) \ne \mathcal{L}(f)\mathcal{L}(g)\]
Ah
So we use the s - differential rule!
I think we just need to follow the given instructions
I'm looking at the rules right now
\[ty''+y'+ty=0\]
It says s - differential rules \[\mathcal {L}(tf(t)) = - \frac{ d }{ ds } \mathcal{L} (f(t))\]
which is same as \(-Y'(s)\) use that
\[-\frac{ d }{ ds }[s^2Y(s)-sy(0)-y'(0)]+sY(s)-y(0)+-\frac{ d }{ ds } Y(s)=0\] you mean this
Yes, that looks good
Ooh I think this does work
yay it works out
Thanks ganeshie
The second part requires integrating factor
Third part not thanks xD
part c is going to be fun
haha ok
So we have to expand the binomial series
yes extended binomial theorem : \[(1+x)^r = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} \dbinom{r}{n}x^r\]
where \[\dbinom{r}{n} = \dfrac{r(r-1)\cdots (r-n+1)}{n!}\]
replace \(x\) by \(s^{-2}\) \(r\) by \(-1/2\)
** yes extended binomial theorem : \[(1+x)^r = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} \dbinom{r}{n}x^{\color{red}{n}}\]
\[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\dbinom{-1/2}{n}s^{-2} = \dfrac{-1/2(-1/2-1)\cdots (-1/2-n+1)}{n!}\] where n = integers
oh oops
forgot about s^(-2)
\[(1+s^{-2})^{-1/2}~~=~~\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\dbinom{-1/2}{n}s^{-2\color{red}{n}} \]
multiply that by \(s^{-1}\) and try taking the inverse lapalce transform
Does the series become just \[s^{-1}(1+s^{-2})^{-1/2}~~=~~\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\dbinom{-1/2}{n}s^{-2n-1}\] I'm not sure if I did this right
looks good
Then take inverse laplace of this? Haha
yes
lookup the table for \(\mathcal{L}^{-1}(1/s^{n+1})\)
recall that laplace transofrm is just an integral, so it is linear so laplace tranform of sum equals the sum of laplace transforms
t^n
\(\mathcal{L}\sum F(s) = \sum \mathcal{L}F(s)\)
there must be some factorial term too
\[\frac{ n! }{ s^{n+1} }\] is t^n
that's the inverse of it
can we say \(\mathcal{L}^{-1}(1/s^{2n+1}) = \dfrac{t^{2n}}{(2n)!}\)
How did you get that
\(\Gamma(n+1)\) is same as \(n!\)
Oh I don't see that on the table
\[\frac{ n! }{ s^{n+1} }\] is t^n
Correct
stare at it follows trivially from above
\[\mathcal{L}^{-1}\dfrac{n!}{s^{n+1}} = t^n\] divide \(n!\) both sides \[\dfrac{1}{n!}\mathcal{L}^{-1}\dfrac{n!}{s^{n+1}} = \dfrac{t^n}{n!}\]
ohh!
you can pull constants in and out
I didn't think we were allowed to do all that haha
why not, it follows from linearity \(\int c f(x)\,dx = c\int f(x)\,dx\)
let me put it ina different way so that it may look plausible to you
I meant set them equal and do all that, I see, that makes a lot of sense
\[\mathcal{L}^{-1}\dfrac{n!}{s^{n+1}} = t^n\] take laplace transform both sides and get \[ \dfrac{n!}{s^{n+1}} =\mathcal{L} t^n\] now, divide \(n!\) both sides \[ \dfrac{1}{s^{n+1}} =\mathcal{L} \dfrac{t^n}{n!}\] take inverse both sides \[\mathcal{L}^{-1}\dfrac{1}{s^{n+1}} = \dfrac{t^n}{n!}\]
Yes yes, I get it
This is like the coolest thing ever
you just need to expand the binomial coefficient and mess with factorials a bit
below might help in getting to the required form : \[(2n)! = 1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot 4\cdots (2n-1)\cdot(2n)\\~\\ =[1\cdot 3\cdots (2n-1)][2\cdot 4\cdots (2n)]\\~\\ =[1\cdot 3\cdots (2n-1)][1\cdot 2\cdots (n)]*2^n\\~\\ =[1\cdot 3\cdots (2n-1)]*n!*2^n\\~\\ \]
Ok thank you, I will try
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