Can someone help explain this induction?
first one?
The one the doctor answers with
I don't know where he got The generating function is (x+x^2+x^3+x^4+....)^4
and prety much anything below that. I've done induction in school before but i'm not sure how he can up with that
lol i just read it 4 times and got stuck exactly where you did
Unless you know how to induct that formula your own way? The one with 2^(x-1)?
no not at all i have an idea of what a generating function is, it is a function, usually a power series, whose coefficients are a particular sequence why the one given is the generating function is unclear to me
my only suggestion is to google whatever you were googling again, and see if you can come up with a more detailed proof
or ask someone smarter than me
im pretty sure that was the only one since its rare that partition would include order
is there anyway to prove it without induction?
a better answer i think is here http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/31562/number-of-ordered-partitions-of-integer where they show (or tell you how to show) that \(P(n+1)=2P(n)\)
so from there i'm suppose to plug in n+1 into the according two formulas of what u wrote?
they didn't actually use induction but they give the correct formulas?
they do use induction if you assume that \(P(n)=2^{n-1}\) then showing that \(P(n+1)=2p(n)\) shows that that \(p(n+1)=2^n\)
pretty clever actually, now that i more or less understand the proof
im a little confused on (i) last element 11 and (ii) last element bigger than 11.
it is similar to proving that the number of subsets of a set of n element is 2^n`
the line that says If the last element is 1, remove it, and you get an ordered partition of n. Moreover, all ordered partitions of n arise in this way, for any ordered partition of n can be extended to an ordered partition of n+1 by appending a 1. So there are P(n) ordered partitions of n+1 with last element 1 ??
it makes sense to me, does it make sense to you?
i think this would make a lot more sense if you use an example
ok lets do a simple one list the ordered partitions of 4, and then the ordered partitions of 5
4=(4) (1+1+1+1) (2+2) (1+2+1)(1+1+2) (2+1+1)(3+1) (1+3) (8 ways) 5=(5) (4+1) (1+4) (3+2) (2+3) (1+1+3)(1+3+1)(3+1+1) (1+1+1+2)(1+2+1+1)(1+1+2+1)(2+1+1+1) (2+2+1) (2+1+2)(1+2+2)(1+1+1+1+1) 16 ways
wow you are quick
so now let us assume (without counting) that there are 8 ordered partitions of 4
im doing a research paper so i already had that for some base cases lol
ok
take away all the ordered partitions of 5 that end in a 1
ok not take them away, list them
(4+1)(3+1+1)(1+2+1+1)(1+1+2+1)(2+1+1+1)(2+2+1)(1+1+1+1+1)
think you missed at least one
(1+3+1)(3+1+1)
(4+1)(3+1+1)(1+3+1)(1+2+1+1)(1+1+2+1)(2+1+1+1)(2+2+1)(1+1+1+1+1)
how many we got?
8 i repeated one
ok now eliminate the last 1 for each of those
(4)(3+1)(1+3)(1+2+1)(1+1+2)(2+1+1)(2+2)(1+1+1+1)
exactly they are the partitions of 4
nice i just noticed that
could you add one's to get partition of 5,6,7 etc?
none are missed, and all the partitions of 5 that end in a 1 are generated by tacking a 1 on the end of those
lol lets not get ahead of ourselves here
lol i just wanted to see if it worked as a general rule or if its only backwards
to better understand this
we are only comparing partitions of 5 with partitions of 4
so to understand the general statement made in the explanation
this statement If the last element is 1, remove it, and you get an ordered partition of n. Moreover, all ordered partitions of n arise in this way, for any ordered partition of n can be extended to an ordered partition of n+1 by appending a 1. So there are P(n) ordered partitions of n+1 with last element 1 is more or less clear now right?
so in the example n+1 was 5 and n=4?
yes
we did it by example listed all partitions of 5, listed the ones that ended in a 1 removed the 1 see that we get exactly the partitions of 4
so whats the other case when the element is greater than 1?
that is even easier we already know there that P(4) =2^3 partitions of 5 that end in a 1 now how about the ones that don't end it a 1, how many of those?
to list them, take all the partitions of 4, and add a 1 to the last number
only for the ones greater than 1 on the last element right?
no
take all the partitions of 4 here (4) (1+1+1+1) (2+2) (1+2+1)(1+1+2) (2+1+1)(3+1) (1+3)
add a 1 to the last number
oh you get 8 partitions of 5
(5),(1+1+1+2),(2+3) (1+2+2)m (1+1+3), (2+1+2), (3+2), (1+4)
ignore the m
those are all the partitions of 5 that do NOT end in a 1
and there are clearly P(4)=2^3 of those as well
so P(4) partitions of 5 that end in a 1, and p(4) partitions that do not end in a 1, for a total of 2p(4) partitions all together
from your listed partitions of (5),(1+1+1+2),(2+3) (1+2+2)m (1+1+3), (2+1+2), (3+2), (1+4), if we had added the 1 without simplifying out the term we would get the other 8 terms right?
i am not sure what you are asking what i did was take the 8 partitions of 4 and added a 1 to the last number, to get another 8 partitions of 5 that do not end in 1
oh i see what you are saying, yes
such as (4), add 1 to get (5) if we leave it at (4+1), its all the other missing partitions?
oh ok
add one, get 8 partitions of 5, append a 1 at the end, get another 8, right
good way to think about it
so i basically do get their statement now but where they used induction if you assume that P(n)=2^(n−1) then showing that P(n+1)=2p(n) shows that that p(n+1)=2n is this ever interpretted like a sum formula?
but then again a sum formula would not serve much of a purpose i think
im not sure if knowing the sum of the powers helps prove anything
you are thinking too hard maybe if you assume \[P(n)=2^{n-1}\] and prove that \[P(n+1)=2P(n)\] then that automatically shows \[P(n+1)=2^n\]
ok typo there
\[P(n+1)=2P(n)=2\times 2^{n-1}=2^n\]
oh true true
\[P(n+1)=2P(n)=2\times \overbrace{2^{n-1}}^{\text{induction here}}=2^n\]
but in my class's induction we usually get a sum formula in that we add then sum of maybe p(n+1)+2pn=2p(n+1) something of that sort
and we see that its alike on both sides
induction is induction there are lots of ways to get to what you want, it doesn't have to be a summation formula
let me clue you in on something, that they do not tell you when they teach induction
yeah i think im generally good with this part. my research also consists of wheather partition (order or not) works with non-whole numbers or negative numbers like you can get a specific formula
im assuming none are possible but im suppose to know why
negatives i just researched and they undefined apparently
don't ask me as for induction,you are taught with examples that are more or less trivial it is usually some simple algebra to go from the case of n to n + 1 in fact you don't need induction to prove summation formulas (but that is a different story) later on you will see that the hard part of induction is not to do some algebra to get what you want, but to figure out how (or why) you can reduce from the case of n + 1 to the case of n this is trivial in summation formulas, you just omit the last term in the sum
you see we were sort of stuck with that here you have a partition of n + 1, how do you compare it to a partition of n that was the hard part it gets harder
i think your induction explanation was pretty good and i should be ok with that in my paper but is there a general statement of why negative partition can't work ?
now you are out of my league, i have no idea in fact i didn't even know this until i googled
i think i already see why there would be an infinite amount of partitions for every negative number
i do like the other explanation as well there are n - 1 spaces between n rocks there are \(2^n\) subsets of a set of n-1 spaces, same as partitioning the n rocks
oops i meant \(2^{n-1}\) must be getting tired good luck with your research
this was the majority of my paper so you basically saved my night with your explanation. might actually get decent sleep, thank you again sir
you are quite welcome it is great to help someone actually engaged in mathematics as apposed to say "find the line..."
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