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Earle says that m×(−1) is always equal to m÷(−1), for all rational values of m. Is he correct? Use the drop-down menus to explain whether Earle is correct. Earle :(is not, is) correct. The expressions: (are not equivalent when m=0, always equal the same negative number, both represent the opposite of m, or may or may not be equivalent) In the parenthesis you can choose
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Not sure about this one either :c
I would go for is, cause the reciprical of -1 is itself
Ok thank you
um so "always equal the same negative number" ??
@caozeyuan
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or both rep the oppo of m?
wait so you're unsure too or is that the answer
hello?
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