Ask your own question, for FREE!
Trigonometry 6 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Per definition; cos(w' 2T) is always equal to one. Why? There is no explanation to why it will always be one. How can w'2T always result into one? ( Attachment )

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I asked the same question here ( http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/55e571ede4b03567e110d72b ) and got an answer; but realized that w is derived! How can a derived w' cancel out a w?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

w = root(k/m) w' = root(k/m - b^2/4m^2) Their values should not matter, as, according to previous answer (link in previous post) they should cancel eachother out; resulting into an cos(n*2pi) value resulting into it always becoming = 1

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!