Let X be a set of real numbers with least upper bound a. Prove that if epsilon > 0, then there exists an x in X, such that (a - epsilon) < x <= a.
work directly from the definition of least upper bound that is the point of the question if what you had was not true (so i guess you are working by contradiction) then \(a\) would not be a least upper bound
in other words, if there was no such \(x\) with \(a-\epsilon<x\leq a\) then \(a\) would not be a LEAST upper bound
if that is not clear, let me know
Yeah, I guess I'm having trouble where to get started. For proof by contradiction would I assume that epsilon is less than 0? Or would I assume x >= a. I'm still kind of processing the definition of LUB.
*trouble understanding where
I don't quite understand where epsilon comes in.
ok i can see why this would be confusing so lets go slow
the definition of least upper bound, at least i am assuming this is the definition you are using is this: \(a\) is a least upper bound of a set of real numbers \(X\) if i) for every \(x\in X, x\le
oops
i) for every \(x\in X, x\leq a\) and ii) if \(k\) is another upper bound for \(X\) then \(k\geq a\) is that what you are using?
yes, those definitions are in my textbook
ok good
so lets work by contradiction and suppose that the statement above is not true, i.e it is not true that given any \(\epsilon>0\) there exists an \(x\in X\) such that \(a-\epsilon <x\leq a\)
do you know how to negate that statement? what it means for it not to be true? "no" is a fine answer, just asking
yes, wouldn't it be for all x in X, ( a- epsilon < x <= a) is not true and then you'd just flip the inequalities?
oh no so lets take this part and make it clear
oh lol, sorry. It's been awhile since my first proof class.
no problem
to negate that statement you do not flip any inequalities suppose i said "for all houses in this neighbourhood, there is a room that is painted red" what would we do to show that it is not true? answer: find SOME house with NO red room
the negation of the statement "for every \(\epsilon>0\) there is some \(x\in X\) such that is There is some \(\epsilon >0\) such that there is NO \(x\in X\) with \(a-\epsilon <x\leq a\)
let me know if that is clear nor not
okay, got it so far.
ok so lets assume by contradtction that the statement is not true, i.e. there is some \(\epsilon>0\) with no \(x\in X\) satisfying \(a-\epsilon<x\leq a\) what does that mean about \(a-\spsilon\)?
oops about \(a-\epsilon\)?
it means i) \(a-\epsilon \) is an upper bound for \(X\) since there are no \(x\)'s larger than it
and also since \(a-\epsilon <a\) that means \(a\) is NOT the least upper bound
i.e. it contradicts the fact that \(a\) was a least upper bound since we have another upper bound that is less than it
which would be a contradiction because the problem states that the LUB for X is a?
yes, exactly
we have found another upper bound, namely \(a-\epsilon\) that is clearly less than \(a\)
oh okay. and that's where that 2 condition of LUB comes in?
oh never mind. I'm referring to my textbook
yes, \(a\) was not only supposed to be the upper bound but also if \(k\) is some other upper bound then \(k\geq a\)
i hope the logic of that is more or less clear
Yeah, the logic is completely clear. The most difficult part is really understanding the definition of LUB and the role epsilon plays even though I know what a LUB is intuitively
thanks for your help :)
yeah don't get messed up by that greek letter, it just means some positive number
you're welcome
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