Simplify the following by using the geometry of an appropriate triangle tan(sin-1(x)) and cos(tan-1(x))
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there is a picture of a triangle and an angle \(\theta\) with \(\sin(\theta)=x\) thinking of sine as opposite over hypotenuse what is missing is the third side which you find via pythagoras
Ok, so sin(theta) = opp./hyp. Then how do we use Pythag to find the '?' side if we dont have x? Or we use x as it is to plug in?
there is an x in your answer
\[x^2+?^2=1\] is a start
clear or no?
Clearer yes. So the third side will equal sqrt(1-x^2), right?
yes
with a tiny bit of practice this will be immediate
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now you can take any other trig ratio you like, including "opposite over adjacent"
So now we need to find the inverse of sin, right? so sin-1=hyp/opp right
hold the phone you were trying to find this composition \[\tan(\sin^{-1}(x))\] right? in terms of x alone
Yes. to do that do we find inverse sin, and plug that term into tan(x)?
no
the angle IS the arcsine of x , you want the tangent of that angle do "opposite over adjacent" for the triangle labelled above
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or rather "its"
Oh ok thank you. So we end up with x/(sqrt(1-x^2)). Is that the final simplified version?
yes
Now for the second part, when finding cos(tan-1(x)), are we able to use the same original triangle setup or do the positions of the 1 and the x need to change for some reason?
you have to change the triangle so the x is the "opposite" and the 1 is the adjacent, since tangent is that
then solve for the hypotenuse it is similar, but different
Ok. And how did you know that the x needs to be the opposite, and the 1 must be adjacent, rather than that being switched or something maybe?
I thought it might be if we're finding the inverse of tanx, the "opposite over adjacent" must give us 1/x. But no?
no
inverse does not mean reciprocal
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Ok - because an arctangent is simply the angle of the tangent sides. Makes sense.
So the cos(tan-1(x)) is 1/1+x^2?
Because i used Pythag to solve for the third side and I found the adj./hyp.
you should have a square root there
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