Find the limit as h approaches 0 of (f(x+h)-f(x-h))/(2h).
any particular \(f(x)\)?
no
then it could be equal to anything, or not even exist at all
but perhaps you are supposed to look at it is \[\frac{1}{2}\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}\]
do you recognize the expression after the \(\frac{1}{2}\) ?
Yes, that would just be f'(x)/2
yes
But if you are going to do it that way, then it would be written \[\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }[\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{ f(x+h)-f(x) }{ h }+\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{ f(x-h)+f(x) }{ h }]\]
oooh i read it wrong, sorry
no problem, I'm just a bit confused as to how to get a general solution to the problem
what you wrote is the derivative twice
wait...really?
So the second limit is also a derivative?
i think so, let me check more carefully hold on yes the second is also since it is a two sided limit \(h\) has to go to zero from both directions so there is no difference between them
oh no wrong again, let me pay better attension the second is plus not minus
but if the function is continuous then \[\lim_{h\to 0}f(x-h)=f(x)\]
i better do this with pencil and paper so as not to mess you about
ok, I'm not told that the function is continuous, and I'm not really sure whether it would be proper to infer that, but yes, it would make the problem a whole lot easier if it was continuous
if it isn't then you can't say anything
So, would the answer just be f'(x)/2 ?
no just \(f'\) since you have two of them and you are dividing by 2 lets go carefully and make sure it it is clear and also correct
you already broke it apart by adding and subtracting \(f(x)\) to get \[\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }[\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{ f(x+h)-f(x) }{ h }+\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{ f(x-h)+f(x) }{ h }]\]
oops typo there, it should be \[\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }[\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{ f(x+h)-f(x) }{ h }+\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{ -f(x-h)+f(x) }{ h }]\]
the first part is evidently the derivative right?
yeah
to see that the second one is also replace \(h\) by \(-h\)
let me know if that is clear or not
Yeah, that makes sense, because -h would turn the second limit into the second limit. But if you replace h by -h for the second limit, wouldn't you have to do that with the first one as well?
no
taking the limits separately
ok, and I have another question: would replacing h with -h mean that h would have to be negative for the limit to work?
no h goes to zero from both directions it is just an algebra trick to turn \[\frac{-f(x-h)+f(x)}{h}\] in to \[\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}\]
ok, that makes sense. Thank you for your help!
yw
sorry i screwed up so much before reading properly
don't worry, we all make mistakes
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